SSC Selection Post Phase 14 · Exam Replay

General Awareness — Selection Post Phase 14 (2026)

Every shift as it was held, set as 15-minute tests of 25 questions with +2 / −0.5 marking. Graduate and 12th level for Quant and Reasoning; 10th, 12th and Graduate for General Awareness, with an explanation for every question, and English.

Graduate · 17 Sep 2026, Shift 1, 10:00 AM

Q26 · Physical features and rivers of India

The Shevaroy Hills are located in which Indian state?

  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Karnataka
  3. Kerala
  4. Tamil Nadu

Answer: D. The Shevaroy Hills lie in Salem district of Tamil Nadu and are part of the Eastern Ghats; the hill station Yercaud sits on them. Other Eastern Ghats hills in Tamil Nadu include the Javadi, Kalrayan and Kollimalai hills.

Q27 · Biology

Which hormone is specifically secreted by the pineal gland?

  1. Melanin
  2. Insulin
  3. Melatonin
  4. Thyroxine

Answer: C. The pineal gland, located in the brain, secretes melatonin, which regulates the sleep-wake (circadian) rhythm. Melanin is a skin pigment, insulin comes from the beta cells of the pancreas and thyroxine from the thyroid gland.

Q28 · Physics and chemistry

An object of height 1.0 cm is placed 24 cm before a concave mirror of focal length 16 cm. What is the nature and height of the image?

  1. Erect, 2.0 cm
  2. Erect, 0.4 cm
  3. Inverted, 0.4 cm
  4. Inverted, 2.0 cm

Answer: D. Using the mirror formula with u of minus 24 cm and f of minus 16 cm, the image distance v comes to minus 48 cm, so the image is real and in front of the mirror. Magnification is minus v divided by u, which is minus 2, so the image is inverted and 2.0 cm tall. An object between F and C of a concave mirror always gives a real, inverted, magnified image beyond C.

Q29 · Agriculture and land use

Which type of climate is most suitable for the cultivation of maize?

  1. Humid
  2. Semi arid
  3. Cold and snowy
  4. Coastal and windy

Answer: B. The key marks semi-arid. Maize is a kharif crop that grows in temperatures of 21 to 27 degrees Celsius and moderate rainfall of 50 to 100 cm, so it does well in semi-arid and sub-humid regions on old alluvial soil. Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are leading producers.

Q30 · Modern India

Consider the statements on Pitt's India Act, 1784: 1. Madras and Bombay Presidencies were made subordinate to Bengal only in matters of revenue. 2. The Governor-General and council were forbidden to declare war or enter treaties without sanction of the directors or the secret committee.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: B. Pitt's India Act made Madras and Bombay subordinate to Bengal in matters of war, diplomacy and revenue, not revenue alone, so statement 1 is wrong. It created the Board of Control for political affairs (dual government) and barred the Governor-General from declaring war or making treaties without the sanction of the Directors or the Secret Committee.

Q31 · Anti-doping

What does a Therapeutic Use Exemption (TUE) allow an athlete to do under anti-doping regulations?

  1. Use any performance-enhancing drug without restriction
  2. Use a prohibited substance or method for medical treatment with official approval
  3. Avoid undergoing doping tests during competition
  4. Transfer responsibility of doping violations to the team doctor

Answer: B. A TUE, granted under the WADA International Standard, lets an athlete with a genuine medical condition use a prohibited substance or method. It is approved in advance by the anti-doping body (NADA in India) and does not exempt the athlete from testing.

Q32 · Persons in news

Preeti Rajak became the first woman in the Indian Army to be promoted to the rank of ____.

  1. General
  2. Colonel
  3. Subedar
  4. Captain

Answer: C. Preeti Rajak, a trap shooter and Asian Games silver medallist, became the first woman in the Indian Army to be promoted to Subedar, a Junior Commissioned Officer rank. She had earlier been the first woman Havildar in the Corps of Military Police.

Q33 · Modern India

Consider the statements on British educational policies: 1. Wood's Despatch (1854) made English the sole medium, excluding vernacular languages. 2. The Hunter Commission (1882) reviewed education and stressed expansion of primary and secondary education.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: B. Wood's Despatch, called the Magna Carta of English education, recommended English for higher studies but vernacular languages at the primary level, so statement 1 is false. The Hunter Commission under Lord Ripon reviewed the Despatch's progress and emphasised state support for primary education and expansion of secondary education.

Q34 · Atmosphere, climate and oceans

Consider the statements about the ionosphere: 1. Radio waves are transmitted to Earth from this layer due to magnetic particles. 2. Its reflection property makes long-distance radio communication possible.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: B. The ionosphere, roughly 80 to 400 km high in the thermosphere, contains electrically charged ions and free electrons, not magnetic particles. These charged particles reflect radio waves back to Earth, enabling long-distance radio communication, so only statement 2 is correct.

Q35 · Dance (classical and folk)

Raas Leela is a classical dance form of which state?

  1. Assam
  2. Manipur
  3. Odisha
  4. West Bengal

Answer: B. Raas Leela is the central theme of Manipuri classical dance, depicting the love of Radha and Krishna with graceful, restrained movements and the stiff Potloi skirt. Manipuri is one of the eight classical dances recognised by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.

Q36 · Dance (classical and folk)

Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of a folk dance with its state?

  1. Kud - Jammu and Kashmir
  2. Karma - West Bengal
  3. Chhai Lam - Nagaland
  4. Dollu Kunitha - Tamil Nadu

Answer: A. Kud is a night-time folk dance of Jammu performed to honour Lok Devtas. Karma belongs to Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh tribes, Chheih Lam to Mizoram, and Dollu Kunitha is a drum dance of Karnataka dedicated to Beeralingeshwara (Shiva).

Q37 · Books, authors and literary awards

Who won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 for the poetry book 'Padapurana'?

  1. Nandini Sidha Reddy
  2. Girijakumar Baliyar Singh
  3. Pritpal Singh Betab
  4. Prasun Bandyopadhyay

Answer: B. Girijakumar Baliyar Singh won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 in Odia for his poetry collection Padapurana. Sahitya Akademi gives its main award in 24 languages, carrying a cash prize of one lakh rupees.

Q38 · Government schemes

How many PM-MITRA parks are being established across India to boost the textile sector?

  1. 5
  2. 7
  3. 10
  4. 12

Answer: B. Seven PM-MITRA (Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel) parks are being set up under the Ministry of Textiles, inspired by the 5F vision of Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign. The sites are in Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.

Q39 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

A major strategic challenge for the expansion of BRICS is:

  1. The absence of developing economies among members
  2. Uniform foreign policy priorities among members
  3. Lack of natural resources among members
  4. Managing competing regional rivalries among members of an expanded grouping

Answer: D. Expansion brought in members such as Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, UAE and Indonesia, some of whom have regional rivalries with each other or with founding members. Balancing these competing interests while working by consensus is the main strategic challenge for an expanded BRICS.

Q40 · Books, authors and literary awards

Which pair of book title and language (Poetry, Sahitya Akademi Award 2025) is correctly matched?

  1. Thakur Satsayie - Kashmiri
  2. Shrestha Kabita - Dogri
  3. Safar Jaari Hai - Urdu
  4. Animesha - Hindi

Answer: C. Safar Jaari Hai won in Urdu. Thakur Satsayie was the winning poetry book in Dogri, as another shift of this exam also tested, so the other pairs are mismatched.

Q41 · Biology

Which of the following is the smallest individual bone in the human body?

  1. Scapula bone
  2. Rib cage
  3. Stapes bone
  4. Coxal bone

Answer: C. The stapes, or stirrup, in the middle ear is the smallest bone, about 3 mm long. Together with the malleus and incus it carries sound vibrations to the inner ear. The femur is the longest bone.

Q42 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

A voluntarily joins a gang of armed robbers despite being threatened with beating. During a robbery the leader threatens to kill A instantly unless he breaks a shop door, and A complies. What is correct under the BNS, 2023?

  1. A is fully protected because he acted under threat of instant death.
  2. A is protected because robbery is not punishable with death.
  3. A cannot claim protection since he willingly subjected himself to coercion.
  4. A is protected because threats always excuse compelled acts.

Answer: C. Section 32 of the BNS (formerly IPC 84) excuses acts done under threat of instant death, except murder and offences against the State punishable with death. The protection is lost if the person, of his own accord, placed himself in the situation of such constraint, as A did by voluntarily joining the gang.

Q43 · Census 2011 and demography

As per Census 2011, which State had the highest proportion of ST population relative to its total population?

  1. Mizoram
  2. Nagaland
  3. Meghalaya
  4. Manipur

Answer: A. Mizoram has the highest ST share at about 94.4 percent, followed by Nagaland (86.5) and Meghalaya (86.1); among UTs, Lakshadweep is highest at about 94.8 percent. In absolute numbers, Madhya Pradesh has the largest ST population.

Q44 · Persons in news

Maruti Chitampalli, who passed away on 18 June 2025, was best known as a:

  1. Economist
  2. Wildlife conservationist and writer
  3. Film director
  4. Space scientist

Answer: B. Maruti Chitampalli was a Marathi writer and forest officer, called Aranya Rishi, known for books on forests and wildlife. He was awarded the Padma Shri in 2025.

Q45 · GI tags and important days

In December 2025, Namakkal Maakkal Pathirangal from Tamil Nadu got a GI tag for which product category?

  1. Soapstone Cookware
  2. Jaggery Powder
  3. Wooden Toys
  4. Handwoven Cotton Sari

Answer: A. Namakkal Maakkal Pathirangal are traditional soapstone vessels carved in Namakkal district of Tamil Nadu. GI tags are given under the Geographical Indications of Goods Act, 1999, and the registry is in Chennai.

Q46 · ISRO and space missions

The CE20 cryogenic engine is used to power which stage of India's LVM3?

  1. Booster stage
  2. Core stage
  3. Upper stage
  4. Payload fairing

Answer: C. LVM3 has three stages: two S200 solid strap-on boosters, the L110 liquid core stage with Vikas engines, and the C25 cryogenic upper stage powered by the CE20 engine using liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen.

Q47 · Budget, fiscal policy and taxes

Which pair consists of a direct tax followed by an indirect tax?

  1. Income Tax - GST
  2. GST - Corporate Tax
  3. Customs Duty - Income Tax
  4. Excise Duty - Wealth Tax

Answer: A. A direct tax is paid by the person on whom it is levied, such as income tax, corporate tax and wealth tax. An indirect tax can be shifted to others, such as GST, customs and excise duty. Only Income Tax followed by GST fits the order asked.

Q48 · Temple and monument architecture

In Indian temple architecture, which feature distinguishes a Sandhara temple?

  1. Omnidirectional entryways
  2. Lacking any circumambulatory pathway
  3. Having a circumambulatory pathway
  4. Monolithic rock structure

Answer: C. A Sandhara temple has a pradakshina patha (covered circumambulatory path) around the garbhagriha, while a Nirandhara temple lacks one. A Sarvatobhadra temple has entrances on all four sides.

Q49 · Pollution and AQI

Under India's National AQI, which pollutant is assessed using an 8-hour average rather than 24 hours?

  1. CO
  2. NH3
  3. SO2
  4. PM10

Answer: A. India's NAQI uses eight pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 and Pb. Carbon monoxide and ozone are measured on an 8-hour average, while the rest use a 24-hour average.

Q50 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

Which policy decision was taken for Maharatna, Navratna and Miniratna enterprises under post-1991 reforms?

  1. They were retained in the public sector
  2. They were transferred to State Governments
  3. They were converted into private enterprises
  4. They were merged with departmental undertakings

Answer: A. The NCERT notes that profit-making PSUs were retained in the public sector and given greater managerial and financial autonomy through the Maharatna, Navratna and Miniratna status, instead of being privatised.

Graduate · 18 Sep 2026, Shift 1, 10:00 AM

Q26 · Physics and chemistry

What would happen if Earth's gravity were twice as strong?

  1. Tides would remain unaffected
  2. Human physiology would adapt easily
  3. Atmospheric pressure would increase significantly
  4. Space exploration would become easier

Answer: C. Atmospheric pressure is the weight of the air column above a surface, so doubling gravity would roughly double that weight and the pressure. Escape velocity would also rise, making space launches harder.

Q27 · Anti-doping

Which of the following substances is banned by anti-doping agencies?

  1. Vitamins
  2. Energy Drinks
  3. Steroids
  4. Protein Powder

Answer: C. Anabolic steroids are on the WADA Prohibited List because they artificially build muscle. Other banned classes include peptide hormones such as EPO, stimulants, diuretics used as masking agents and blood doping.

Q28 · Asian, Commonwealth and other games

Which country won the most gold medals at the 2023 Asian Games?

  1. Japan
  2. China
  3. India
  4. South Korea

Answer: B. China topped the 2022 Hangzhou Asian Games, held in 2023, with 201 golds. India finished fourth with a record 107 medals (28 gold). The 2026 Games are in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan.

Q29 · Basic concepts and demand

Identify the correct formula for the price elasticity of demand.

  1. % change in quantity demanded / % change in price
  2. % change in price / % change in quantity demanded
  3. Original price / change in price
  4. Change in quantity / original quantity

Answer: A. Price elasticity of demand is the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price. A value above 1 means elastic demand, below 1 inelastic, and exactly 1 unitary elastic.

Q30 · Medieval India

Who neither ruled over Delhi nor founded any dynasty in India?

  1. Muhammad Ghori
  2. Qutb-ud-din Aibak
  3. Mahmud of Ghazni
  4. Iltutmish

Answer: C. Mahmud of Ghazni raided India 17 times between 1000 and 1027 CE, including the Somnath raid of 1025, but never ruled Delhi. Ghori laid the base of Turkish rule, Aibak founded the Mamluk dynasty, and Iltutmish ruled from Delhi as its consolidator.

Q31 · Budget, fiscal policy and taxes

To what extent has the Indian government pledged to reduce the use of solid fuels in households?

  1. 25%
  2. 30%
  3. 50%
  4. 75%

Answer: C. The key marks 50 percent. India's clean cooking push through the Ujjwala Yojana aims to shift households from solid fuels such as firewood and dung cakes to LPG to cut indoor air pollution.

Q32 · Temple and monument architecture

Which French architectural element is most commonly found in Pondicherry buildings?

  1. Arcaded courtyards
  2. Onion domes
  3. Mansard roofs
  4. Latticed jaalis

Answer: A. The French Quarter (White Town) of Puducherry has colonial buildings with arcaded verandahs and courtyards, high compound walls and pastel facades. Onion domes are an Indo-Islamic feature and jaalis are Mughal and Rajput screens.

Q33 · Modern India

The Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909 were criticised by Indian nationalists primarily because they:

  1. Granted universal adult suffrage
  2. Failed to introduce election
  3. Introduced separate electorates based on religion
  4. Gave excessive power to elected Indians

Answer: C. The Indian Councils Act, 1909 introduced separate electorates for Muslims, which Lord Minto is called the father of communal electorate for. It also enlarged legislative councils and let members ask supplementary questions and move budget resolutions.

Q34 · Dance (classical and folk)

What was Bharatanatyam originally called?

  1. Sadir or Dasi Attam
  2. Kathakali
  3. Kuchipudi
  4. Mohiniattam

Answer: A. Bharatanatyam of Tamil Nadu was earlier called Sadir or Dasi Attam, performed by devadasis in temples. E. Krishna Iyer and Rukmini Devi Arundale revived and renamed it in the 20th century.

Q35 · Modern India

The Veerangana Archaeological Museum in Jhansi was established in memory of which freedom fighter?

  1. Jhalkari Bai
  2. Krishna Chand Sharma
  3. Raghunath Vinayak Dhulekar
  4. Vishwanath Vaishampayan

Answer: A. Jhalkari Bai was a Dalit woman soldier in Rani Lakshmibai's Durga Dal who disguised herself as the Rani during the 1857 siege of Jhansi to let her escape. The museum honours her role.

Q36 · Dance (classical and folk)

What is the term for pure dance where movements convey no meaning or mood?

  1. Nritya
  2. Natya
  3. Nritta
  4. Abhinaya

Answer: C. Nritta is pure abstract dance of rhythm and movement. Nritya is expressive dance conveying mood through abhinaya, and Natya is dramatic dance telling a story. These terms come from the Natyashastra of Bharata.

Q37 · Minerals and industries

Which of the following is NOT one of the iron ore belts of India?

  1. Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt
  2. Bellary-Chitradurga-Tumkur belt
  3. Maharashtra-Goa belt
  4. Ludhiana-Delhi-Kanpur belt

Answer: D. NCERT lists four iron ore belts: Odisha-Jharkhand, Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur, Ballari-Chitradurga-Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru, and Maharashtra-Goa. Ludhiana-Delhi-Kanpur lies on the alluvial plains with no iron ore.

Q38 · National income and development

The Basic Needs Approach to human development, proposed by the ILO, advocates:

  1. Higher income means higher development
  2. People should be participants, not passive recipients
  3. Building human capabilities
  4. Ignoring human choices and fulfilling basic needs of defined sections

Answer: D. NCERT Human Geography lists four approaches: income, welfare, basic needs and capability. The basic needs approach of the ILO identified six needs (health, education, food, water, sanitation, housing) but ignored human choices. The capability approach is linked to Amartya Sen.

Q39 · Minerals and industries

Where is the Integral Coach Factory located?

  1. Chittaranjan
  2. Varanasi
  3. Jamshedpur
  4. Perambur

Answer: D. The Integral Coach Factory is at Perambur, Chennai. Chittaranjan in West Bengal makes electric locomotives, Varanasi has the Banaras Locomotive Works, and Kapurthala and Rae Bareli have coach factories.

Q40 · Biology

Which of these is NOT a product of biotechnology?

  1. Insulin produced using E. coli
  2. Golden rice
  3. Herbal medicine
  4. Recombinant hepatitis B vaccine

Answer: C. Herbal medicines are made directly from plants without genetic engineering. Recombinant insulin (Humulin), Golden Rice and the recombinant hepatitis B vaccine are made using recombinant DNA technology.

Q41 · Biology

Golden rice has been genetically engineered to produce:

  1. More protein
  2. High iron content
  3. Beta-carotene (Vitamin A precursor)
  4. More calories

Answer: C. Golden Rice carries genes that make beta-carotene, the precursor of vitamin A, giving the grain its golden colour. It targets vitamin A deficiency, which causes night blindness.

Q42 · India and its neighbours (Chabahar, IMEC)

What key project did IPGL and Aria Banader collaborate on in May 2025?

  1. Shipping insurance consortium
  2. Undersea communication cable
  3. Berth refurbishment and port-rail integration
  4. Naval base construction

Answer: C. India Ports Global Limited, which operates the Shahid Beheshti terminal at Chabahar in Iran, partnered with Iran's Aria Banader on berth refurbishment and port-rail connectivity to boost the International North-South Transport Corridor.

Q43 · Physical features and rivers of India

What is the approximate average elevation of the Shiwalik Range?

  1. 300 to 1000 m
  2. 600 to 1500 m
  3. 700 to 1000 m
  4. 1500 to 2000 m

Answer: B. The Shiwaliks, the outermost Himalayas, have altitudes of about 900 to 1100 m (the key accepts 600 to 1500 m) and are 10 to 50 km wide. They are made of unconsolidated sediments, and the longitudinal valleys between the Shiwaliks and the Lesser Himalaya are called duns, like Dehradun.

Q44 · Festivals

Which statement correctly identifies the relationship between Lakulisha and extreme Shaiva sub-sects?

  1. Lakulisha, a sage from Kashmir, founded Aghora Shaivism
  2. Pashupata Shaivism, attributed to Lakulisha of Gujarat, served as a precursor to the Kapalika and Kalamukha sects
  3. Lakulisha distanced himself from Kapalika practices
  4. Kapalika and Kalamukha inspired Lakulisha

Answer: B. Lakulisha, believed to be from Karvan in Gujarat around the 2nd century CE, founded the Pashupata sect, the oldest Shaiva sect. The more extreme Kapalika and Kalamukha sects developed later out of it.

Q45 · Centre-State relations and Emergency

Which right cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency under Article 352?

  1. Article 21
  2. Article 19
  3. Article 22
  4. Article 23

Answer: A. After the 44th Amendment, 1978, Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during any emergency. Article 19 is suspended automatically under Article 358 in an emergency on grounds of war or external aggression.

Q46 · Parliament, Executive and services

What is the primary function of the Finance Commission as per Article 280?

  1. Approve annual budget
  2. Allocate funds for Five-Year Plans
  3. Recommend distribution of taxes between Centre and States
  4. Monitor GST revenue

Answer: C. The Finance Commission, set up by the President every five years under Article 280, recommends the vertical and horizontal sharing of taxes and grants-in-aid under Article 275. The 16th Finance Commission is chaired by Arvind Panagariya.

Q47 · Centre-State relations and Emergency

Which provision empowers the Union to give directions to states for ensuring compliance with laws made by Parliament?

  1. Article 355
  2. Article 256
  3. Article 368
  4. Article 245

Answer: B. Article 256 obliges states to comply with Union laws and lets the Union give directions for this. Article 257 covers Union control over states in certain cases, and Article 365 lets the President treat non-compliance with directions as a breakdown under Article 356.

Q48 · Amendments

Which of the following would not require a constitutional amendment under Article 368?

  1. Formation of a new State
  2. Change in distribution of legislative powers
  3. Change in representation in Rajya Sabha
  4. Altering High Court jurisdiction

Answer: A. Under Articles 2, 3 and 4, a new state can be formed by an ordinary law of Parliament, and Article 4 says such a law is not an amendment under Article 368. The other changes need a special majority, with some also needing state ratification.

Q49 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

Which institutional reform improved transparency and investor confidence in Indian stock markets post-1991?

  1. Creation of NSE
  2. Merger of private banks
  3. Disbanding of SEBI
  4. Nationalisation of Dalal Street brokers

Answer: A. The National Stock Exchange, set up in 1992 and trading from 1994, brought nationwide screen-based electronic trading. SEBI, which got statutory powers in 1992, regulates the securities market.

Q50 · Census 2011 and demography

A census town (Census 2011) must satisfy all of the following conditions except:

  1. Population exceeds 5,000
  2. At least 50% engaged in agriculture
  3. Density exceeds 400 per sq km
  4. Majority engaged in non-agricultural pursuits

Answer: B. A census town needs a population of at least 5,000, density of at least 400 per sq km, and at least 75 percent of male main workers in non-agricultural work. A requirement of 50 percent in agriculture is the opposite of this.

Graduate · 19 Sep 2026, Shift 1, 10:00 AM

Q26 · Physical features and rivers of India

What is the narrow belt of pebbles and gravel located south of the Shivalik foothills called?

  1. Tarai
  2. Doon
  3. Khadar
  4. Bhabar

Answer: D. The Bhabar is an 8 to 16 km wide porous belt of pebbles at the Shiwalik foot where streams disappear underground. South of it lies the marshy Terai where they re-emerge, then the older alluvium Bhangar and newer floodplain Khadar.

Q27 · Biology

How many hydrogen bonds connect Adenine and Thymine?

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four

Answer: B. Adenine pairs with thymine through two hydrogen bonds, while guanine pairs with cytosine through three, making GC-rich DNA more stable. In RNA, uracil replaces thymine.

Q28 · Physics and chemistry

An object 4 cm tall is 24 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Which correctly describes the image?

  1. 17.14 cm, 2.86 cm, real and inverted
  2. 16.67 cm, 3.33 cm, virtual and erect
  3. 7.14 cm, 1.43 cm, real and inverted
  4. 17.14 cm, 3.33 cm, virtual and erect

Answer: A. By the lens formula 1/v minus 1/u equals 1/f, with u of minus 24 and f of 10, v comes to about 17.14 cm. Magnification v/u is about minus 0.71, so the image is 2.86 cm tall, real and inverted, as expected for an object beyond 2F.

Q29 · Minerals and industries

Which mineral is abundantly available in the Hazaribagh plateau region of Jharkhand?

  1. Bauxite
  2. Mica
  3. Copper
  4. Iron Ore

Answer: B. The Koderma-Gaya-Hazaribagh belt of Jharkhand is the leading mica belt. Mica's excellent insulating property makes it vital in electrical industries. Other mica areas are Ajmer in Rajasthan and Nellore in Andhra Pradesh.

Q30 · Modern India

Consider the statements on the Ryotwari System: 1. Peasants were recognised as property owners. 2. It reduced the tax burden on peasants completely.

  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. Only 2 is correct
  3. Both are correct
  4. Both are incorrect

Answer: A. Under the Ryotwari system, started by Thomas Munro and Alexander Read in Madras, the ryot was recognised as owner and paid revenue directly to the state. Revenue rates stayed very high, about 45 to 55 percent, so the burden was not removed.

Q31 · Anti-doping

Which Indian female sprinter, a former 100m national record holder, is associated with a four-year ban beginning in late 2022?

  1. PT Usha
  2. Hima Das
  3. Dutee Chand
  4. Annu Rani

Answer: C. Dutee Chand was banned for four years from January 2023 after testing positive for prohibited substances in December 2022; the ban was later reduced on appeal. She held the women's 100 m national record.

Q32 · Modern India

Consider the Indian Councils Act of 1909: 1. It significantly increased the size of legislative councils at Centre and provinces. 2. It did not permit members to ask supplementary questions or move budget resolutions.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither

Answer: A. The Morley-Minto Act enlarged the councils, raising the central council to 60 members. It allowed members to ask supplementary questions and move resolutions on the budget, so statement 2 is false. It also introduced separate electorates and the first Indian (S.P. Sinha) on the Viceroy's Executive Council.

Q33 · Atmosphere, climate and oceans

Which set correctly represents the composition of major gases in dry air?

  1. Nitrogen 78.1%, Oxygen 20.9%
  2. Nitrogen 68.1%, Oxygen 25.9%
  3. Nitrogen 78.1%, Oxygen 25.9%
  4. Nitrogen 68.1%, Oxygen 20.9%

Answer: A. Dry air is about 78.08 percent nitrogen, 20.95 percent oxygen, 0.93 percent argon and about 0.04 percent carbon dioxide. Argon is the third most abundant gas.

Q34 · Dance (classical and folk)

Bagurumba dance is associated with which community?

  1. Mishing
  2. Bodo
  3. Adi
  4. Karbi

Answer: B. Bagurumba, the butterfly dance, is performed by Bodo women of Assam during the Bwisagu festival. In 2025 over 10,000 artists performed it together in Guwahati.

Q35 · Dance (classical and folk)

Which pair of folk dance and state is correctly matched?

  1. Raut Nacha - Chhattisgarh
  2. Dollu Kunitha - Tamil Nadu
  3. Bhortal Nritya - Meghalaya
  4. Cheraw Dance - Nagaland

Answer: A. Raut Nacha is performed by the Yadav (Raut) community of Chhattisgarh after Diwali. Dollu Kunitha belongs to Karnataka, Bhortal to Assam and Cheraw (bamboo dance) to Mizoram.

Q36 · Persons in news

Pratyay Amrit, associated with Bihar's industrial policy initiatives in 2025, holds which position?

  1. Chief Secretary of Bihar
  2. Development Commissioner of Bihar
  3. Principal Secretary, Industries
  4. Chairman, BIADA

Answer: A. Pratyay Amrit, a 1991-batch IAS officer, is the Chief Secretary of Bihar. The Chief Secretary is the senior-most civil servant of a state and heads its administration.

Q37 · Books, authors and literary awards

Which English novel was honoured with the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025?

  1. Spirit Nights
  2. Requiem in Raga Janki
  3. Crimson Spring
  4. The Last Queen

Answer: C. Crimson Spring by Navtej Sarna, a novel on the 1919 Jallianwala Bagh massacre, won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 in English.

Q38 · Government schemes

As of October 2025, how many Atal Tinkering Labs had been established in schools?

  1. 5,000
  2. 8,000
  3. 10,000
  4. 15,000

Answer: C. About 10,000 Atal Tinkering Labs had been set up under the Atal Innovation Mission of NITI Aayog. Budget 2025-26 announced 50,000 more labs in government schools over five years.

Q39 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

The best explanation of China's support for BRICS expansion is:

  1. Dissolving the G20
  2. Creating a military alliance against NATO
  3. Weakening ASEAN
  4. Increasing the collective bargaining power of non-Western economies

Answer: D. China sees an enlarged BRICS as a platform to raise the collective voice of emerging, non-Western economies in global governance. BRICS is not a military alliance.

Q40 · Books, authors and literary awards

Who won the Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2025 for the Bengali story collection 'Ekhono Gaye Kanta Daye'?

  1. Dipanwita Ghosh Mukhopadhyay
  2. Parthajit Gangopadhyay Roy
  3. Tridib Kumar Chattopadhyay
  4. Ratantanu Ghati Chatterjee

Answer: C. Tridib Kumar Chattopadhyay won the Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2025 in Bengali. The Sahitya Akademi gives Bal Sahitya Puraskar for children's literature and Yuva Puraskar for writers up to 35 years of age.

Q41 · Biology

Which type of joint connects the cervical spine of the neck to the base of the head?

  1. Ball and socket
  2. Hinge
  3. Pivot
  4. Fixed

Answer: C. The pivot joint between the atlas and axis vertebrae lets the head rotate side to side. Ball and socket joints are at shoulder and hip, hinge joints at knee and elbow, and fixed joints in the skull sutures.

Q42 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

A is sentenced to 8 years RI, a fine of Rs 20,000, and 1 year SI in default. After 6 months of default imprisonment he pays half the fine. What is correct under the BNS?

  1. He must complete the entire default term
  2. He is released because half payment wipes out the sentence
  3. He must continue imprisonment only proportionate to the unpaid part
  4. The Court must hold a fresh sentencing hearing

Answer: C. Under BNS (formerly IPC 69), default imprisonment ends when the fine is paid, and if part is paid the term is reduced proportionately. Paying half means only half the default term, 6 months, is due, which he has already served.

Q43 · Census 2011 and demography

As per Census 2011, which state has the highest proportion of its urban population living in slums?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Punjab
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. Andhra Pradesh

Answer: D. Undivided Andhra Pradesh had about 36 percent of its urban population in slums, the highest. In absolute numbers, Maharashtra had the largest slum population.

Q44 · ISRO and space missions

Who was ISRO Chairman during the XPoSat launch on January 1, 2024?

  1. K. Sivan
  2. S. Somanath
  3. V. Narayanan
  4. Madhavan Nair

Answer: B. S. Somanath headed ISRO from 2022 to January 2025, covering Chandrayaan-3, Aditya-L1 and XPoSat, India's first X-ray polarimetry mission. V. Narayanan succeeded him in January 2025.

Q45 · GI tags and important days

In December 2025, which Tamil Nadu product got a GI tag for traditional wooden toy craftsmanship?

  1. Ambasamudram choppu saman
  2. Moondradaippu nattu sakkarai
  3. Madurai Sungudi Saree
  4. Thanjavur thalayatti bommai

Answer: A. Ambasamudram choppu saman are traditional wooden kitchen toys from Tirunelveli district. Thanjavur thalayatti bommai (bobble-head dolls) already had a GI tag earlier.

Q46 · Temple and monument architecture

Where are the Ashtadikpalas typically placed in Hindu temple architecture?

  1. Guarding entrance doorways
  2. Inside subsidiary shrines
  3. Facing outwards on sanctum or temple walls
  4. Embedded within gopurams

Answer: C. The Ashtadikpalas, guardians of the eight directions such as Indra (east), Agni (south-east) and Yama (south), are carved on the outer walls of the sanctum facing their directions. River goddesses Ganga and Yamuna guard the doorways.

Q47 · Pollution and AQI

Under the US EPA AQI system, which category is indicated by maroon?

  1. Hazardous
  2. Unhealthy
  3. Moderate
  4. Very Unhealthy

Answer: A. The US AQI uses green (good), yellow (moderate), orange (unhealthy for sensitive groups), red (unhealthy), purple (very unhealthy) and maroon (hazardous, 301 and above). India's NAQI has six categories from Good to Severe.

Q48 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

Which characteristic made India a preferred outsourcing destination after 1991?

  1. Skilled manpower and advanced infrastructure
  2. Low-wage rates and skilled manpower
  3. Low-wage rates and large domestic market
  4. Skilled manpower and natural resources

Answer: B. NCERT explains that the availability of skilled, English-speaking manpower at low wages made India a destination for global outsourcing such as call centres and BPO, helped by the IT revolution.

Q49 · ISRO and space missions

Which Indian programme was identified by ISRO in 2025 as a major beneficiary of Axiom Mission-4?

  1. Chandrayaan
  2. Gaganyaan
  3. Aditya-L1
  4. SpaDeX

Answer: B. Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla flew on Axiom-4 to the ISS in June 2025, the first Indian to visit the ISS. His experience feeds directly into Gaganyaan, India's first human spaceflight programme.

Q50 · Basic concepts and demand

Which best distinguishes economics from many other social sciences?

  1. It studies only wealth
  2. It focuses on how scarce resources are allocated among competing uses
  3. It excludes psychological influences
  4. It is concerned only with production and exchange

Answer: B. Lionel Robbins defined economics as the study of human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means having alternative uses. Scarcity and choice are its central problems.

Graduate · 21 Sep 2026, Shift 1, 10:00 AM

Q26 · Physics and chemistry

What if friction were completely eliminated from a system with a moving object?

  1. The object would stop after a fixed distance
  2. It would follow a curved path
  3. It would continue moving indefinitely at constant velocity
  4. Its velocity would increase continuously

Answer: C. By Newton's first law, a body keeps moving with uniform velocity unless an external force acts. With no friction there is no opposing force, so the object keeps moving at constant velocity.

Q27 · Biology

Which microorganism is commonly used in fermenting dairy products like yogurt?

  1. Streptococcus thermophilus
  2. Bacillus subtilis
  3. E. coli
  4. Staphylococcus aureus

Answer: A. Yogurt is made by Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus. Curd is made by Lactobacillus (LAB), which also increases vitamin B12. Yeast (Saccharomyces) is used in bread and alcohol.

Q28 · Anti-doping

What does sample collection refer to in anti-doping procedures?

  1. Collecting performance records
  2. Collecting urine or blood samples for testing
  3. Collecting survey responses
  4. Collecting fitness data

Answer: B. Doping control officers collect urine or blood samples, split into A and B samples. India's National Dope Testing Laboratory in New Delhi tests them.

Q29 · Asian, Commonwealth and other games

Which athlete won the maximum Olympic gold medals in history?

  1. Carl Lewis
  2. Usain Bolt
  3. Michael Phelps
  4. Serena Williams

Answer: C. Michael Phelps, the American swimmer, won 23 Olympic golds and 28 medals in total, both records. He won eight golds at Beijing 2008 alone.

Q30 · Pollution and AQI

To reduce pollution, governments are helping businesses use:

  1. More waste
  2. Green technology
  3. Old machines
  4. Coal only

Answer: B. Green technology means cleaner production, renewable energy and efficient processes that cut emissions and waste.

Q31 · Basic concepts and demand

Which of the following is NOT an exception to the law of demand?

  1. Conspicuous goods
  2. Necessary goods (Giffen paradox)
  3. Substitute goods
  4. Veblen effect

Answer: C. Exceptions where demand rises with price include Giffen goods, Veblen or conspicuous goods, expectations of further price rise, and necessities. Substitute goods follow the normal law of demand.

Q32 · Temple and monument architecture

What makes the Dilwara Temples of Mount Abu masterpieces of Jain architecture?

  1. Black basalt
  2. Lotus-shaped water tanks
  3. Frescoes with gold leaf
  4. Marble ceilings with extraordinary filigree work

Answer: D. The Dilwara temples, built in white marble between the 11th and 13th centuries, are famous for intricate carved marble ceilings. Vimal Vasahi was built by Vimal Shah, minister of the Chalukya king Bhima I, and Luna Vasahi by Vastupala and Tejpala.

Q33 · Dance (classical and folk)

Sattriya dance is primarily associated with which state?

  1. Assam
  2. Odisha
  3. Kerala
  4. West Bengal

Answer: A. Sattriya was created by the Vaishnava saint Srimanta Sankardeva in the 15th century and performed in Assam's sattras (monasteries). It was recognised as a classical dance in 2000.

Q34 · Dance (classical and folk)

Kud Dandi Nach is a folk dance of which state?

  1. Haryana
  2. Jammu and Kashmir
  3. Rajasthan
  4. Odisha

Answer: B. Kud Dandi Nach is a folk dance of Jammu and Kashmir, linked to the Kud ritual dance. Other J&K dances include Rouf, Dumhal, Bhand Pather and Hikat.

Q35 · Persons in news

Which Indian city does guitar prodigy Maya Neelakantan hail from?

  1. Mumbai
  2. Bengaluru
  3. Chennai
  4. Hyderabad

Answer: C. Maya Neelakantan from Chennai became famous after appearing on America's Got Talent, playing rock music in a traditional Indian style.

Q36 · Biology

What is the primary goal of regenerative medicine?

  1. Replacing organs with mechanical parts
  2. Removing all bacteria
  3. Repairing or replacing damaged tissues using stem cells
  4. Engineering crops

Answer: C. Regenerative medicine uses stem cells, tissue engineering and gene therapy to repair or replace damaged tissues and organs. Stem cells are unspecialised cells that can turn into many cell types.

Q37 · India and its neighbours (Chabahar, IMEC)

Bhutan's dependence on India includes all of the following except:

  1. Defense
  2. Nuclear technology
  3. Trade
  4. Hydropower

Answer: B. India is Bhutan's largest trade and development partner, buys its surplus hydropower from projects like Chukha and Mangdechhu, and helps train its army through IMTRAT. Bhutan has no nuclear programme.

Q38 · Atmosphere, climate and oceans

The norwesters in Assam are known as:

  1. Tropical cyclone
  2. Andhis
  3. Bardoli Chheerha
  4. Loo winds

Answer: C. Norwesters are evening thunderstorms in eastern India in April and May. They are called Kalbaisakhi in West Bengal and Bardoli Chheerha in Assam, and are useful for tea, jute and rice. Mango showers occur in Kerala and Karnataka.

Q39 · Ancient India

Which describes the 4th Buddhist Council under Kanishka?

  1. Presided by Ashvaghosha, declared Theravada supreme
  2. Held at Rajagriha
  3. Held at Kundalvana in Kashmir, presided by Vasumitra, led to Mahayana Buddhism
  4. Held in Bodh Gaya under the Mauryas

Answer: C. The Fourth Council around 72 CE at Kundalvana, Kashmir was presided over by Vasumitra with Ashvaghosha as deputy, and Buddhism split into Mahayana and Hinayana. The first council was at Rajagriha, the second at Vaishali and the third at Pataliputra under Ashoka.

Q40 · Medieval India

Which Bhakti saint founded the Pushti Marga (Path of Grace)?

  1. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
  2. Tulsidas
  3. Ramdas
  4. Vallabhacharya

Answer: D. Vallabhacharya founded the Pushti Marga and Shuddhadvaita philosophy, worshipping Krishna as Shrinathji. Chaitanya popularised kirtan in Bengal, and Ramdas was Shivaji's guru.

Q41 · Modern India

Which commission recommended a Railway Board, formed in 1905?

  1. Thomas Robertson commission
  2. Thomas Rayleigh commission
  3. Sargent commission
  4. Sadler commission

Answer: A. Sir Thomas Robertson's 1901 report recommended a Railway Board, set up in 1905 under Lord Curzon. The Sargent Plan (1944) and the Sadler Commission (1917) dealt with education.

Q42 · Judiciary, doctrines and landmark cases

Which feature has NOT been explicitly held part of the basic structure by the Supreme Court?

  1. Judicial Review
  2. Federalism
  3. Secularism
  4. Uniform Civil Code

Answer: D. The basic structure doctrine from Kesavananda Bharati (1973) includes judicial review, federalism, secularism, rule of law and free elections. A UCC is a Directive Principle under Article 44 and not part of the basic structure.

Q43 · Parliament, Executive and services

Which article explicitly defines the composition of the Union Executive?

  1. Article 74
  2. Article 52
  3. Article 53
  4. Article 75

Answer: B. Articles 52 to 78 deal with the Union Executive. Article 52 says there shall be a President of India, Article 53 vests executive power in the President, Article 74 provides the Council of Ministers and Article 75 covers other provisions on ministers.

Q44 · Centre-State relations and Emergency

Which Article empowers the Union to issue directions to States for compliance with Union laws?

  1. Article 355
  2. Article 258
  3. Article 256
  4. Article 262

Answer: C. Article 256 says state executive power must be exercised to ensure compliance with Parliament's laws, and lets the Union give directions. Article 258 lets the Union entrust functions to states, and Article 262 deals with inter-state river disputes.

Q45 · Schedules

Which schedule contains provisions on the division of powers between the Union and States?

  1. First
  2. Seventh
  3. Tenth
  4. Twelfth

Answer: B. The Seventh Schedule has three lists: Union (now 98 subjects), State (59) and Concurrent (52). The First Schedule lists states and UTs, the Tenth covers anti-defection and the Twelfth lists municipal functions.

Q46 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

What major change in foreign trade policy made India more competitive after 1991?

  1. Currency substitution
  2. Heavy export duties
  3. Shift to a market-determined exchange rate
  4. Export quotas by PSUs

Answer: C. In 1991 the rupee was devalued, and from 1993 India moved to a market-determined exchange rate. Quantitative restrictions on imports were removed and tariffs reduced to make exports competitive.

Q47 · Agriculture and land use

Which region is often called the Rice Bowl of India?

  1. Telangana
  2. Tamil Nadu
  3. Krishna-Godavari Delta
  4. Ganga-Yamuna Doab

Answer: C. The fertile Krishna-Godavari delta of Andhra Pradesh is called the Rice Bowl of India. Chhattisgarh is also called the rice bowl of central India, and West Bengal is the largest rice producer.

Q48 · Census 2011 and demography

Which state witnessed the highest rate of urbanisation during 2001-2011?

  1. Kerala
  2. Tamil Nadu
  3. Maharashtra
  4. Goa

Answer: A. The key marks Tamil Nadu. Note that Kerala's urban share jumped most sharply from 26 to about 48 percent in that decade; Goa is the most urbanised state at about 62 percent and Tamil Nadu is the most urbanised large state.

Q49 · Census 2011 and demography

The Net Reproductive Rate (NRR) is said to be 1 when:

  1. Population doubles in 50 years
  2. Birth and death rates equalise
  3. A woman replaces herself in the population
  4. Migration equals natural increase

Answer: C. An NRR of 1 means each generation of mothers is replaced by exactly one daughter, giving long-term population stability. The National Population Policy 2000 aimed for an NRR of 1.

Q50 · Census 2011 and demography

Which parameter is not directly included in the Indian Census?

  1. Literacy level
  2. Religion
  3. Household income
  4. Type of residence

Answer: C. The census collects data on literacy, religion, language, occupation, migration and housing, but not household income. Income and consumption data come from NSSO surveys.

Graduate · 22 Sep 2026, Shift 1, 10:00 AM

Q26 · Earth, universe and motions

Which place will experience the longest day in June?

  1. Hyderabad
  2. Chennai
  3. Bhopal
  4. Delhi

Answer: D. During the northern summer solstice on 21 June, day length increases with latitude in the Northern Hemisphere. Delhi, at about 28.6 degrees N, is the northernmost of these cities, so it has the longest day.

Q27 · Biology

Which scientist first identified DNA as Nuclein in 1869?

  1. James Watson
  2. Friedrich Miescher
  3. Francis Crick
  4. Rosalind Franklin

Answer: B. Friedrich Miescher isolated an acidic substance from pus cell nuclei in 1869 and called it nuclein. Watson and Crick proposed the double helix in 1953 using X-ray data from Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins.

Q28 · Physics and chemistry

For a concave mirror with the object between P and F: 1. The image is formed behind the mirror. 2. The image is virtual and erect.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither

Answer: C. With the object between the pole and focus, a concave mirror forms a virtual, erect, magnified image behind the mirror. This is why concave mirrors are used as shaving and dentist mirrors.

Q29 · Minerals and industries

Uranium deposits are found in which district of Chhattisgarh?

  1. Raipur
  2. Bilaspur
  3. Durg
  4. Bastar

Answer: C. The key marks Durg, where uranium occurrences such as Bodal are recorded. India's main uranium mines are at Jaduguda in Jharkhand and Tummalapalle in Andhra Pradesh.

Q30 · Modern India

Regulating Act of 1773: 1. Passed by the British Parliament to control the EIC's administration. 2. It reduced the Governor of Bengal to Governor of Fort William.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both
  4. Neither

Answer: A. The Regulating Act, the first step to control the Company, raised the Governor of Bengal to Governor-General of Bengal (Warren Hastings), with Bombay and Madras subordinate to him. It also set up a Supreme Court at Calcutta in 1774.

Q31 · Anti-doping

In April 2026, into which category did the Athletics Integrity Unit place India due to extremely high doping risks?

  1. Category A
  2. Category B
  3. Category C
  4. Category D

Answer: A. The AIU of World Athletics places federations with the highest doping risk in Category A, which requires stricter out-of-competition testing before major events. India was placed in Category A.

Q32 · Appointments

Harivansh Narayan Singh was re-elected on April 17, 2026 for a third consecutive term as:

  1. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
  2. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
  3. Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. Chief Election Commissioner

Answer: B. Harivansh became Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha in 2018 and was re-elected for a third term in 2026. The Deputy Chairman is elected by Rajya Sabha members under Article 89, while the Vice-President is ex-officio Chairman.

Q33 · Modern India

1. The Regulating Act of 1773 established a Supreme Court at Calcutta with a Chief Justice and three judges. 2. Pitt's India Act of 1784 separated commercial and political functions by creating a Board of Control.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both
  4. Neither

Answer: C. The Supreme Court at Fort William, Calcutta (1774) had Sir Elijah Impey as Chief Justice and three judges. Pitt's India Act set up the Board of Control for political matters while the Court of Directors kept commercial affairs, creating dual government.

Q34 · Atmosphere, climate and oceans

Which correctly lists trace gases with approximate concentrations?

  1. Neon 0.0018%, Helium 0.0005%, Ozone 0.00006%
  2. Neon 0.018%, Helium 0.005%, Ozone 0.0006%
  3. Neon 0.0005%, Helium 0.0018%, Ozone 0.0006%
  4. Neon 0.0028%, Helium 0.0055%, Ozone 0.006%

Answer: A. NCERT's table gives neon at 0.0018 percent, helium 0.0005 percent, ozone 0.00006 percent, krypton 0.001 percent and hydrogen 0.00005 percent. Neon is more abundant than helium in air.

Q35 · Biology

What is the function of the promoter region in a transcription unit?

  1. Terminates transcription
  2. Provides binding site for RNA polymerase
  3. Codes for protein synthesis
  4. Removes introns

Answer: B. A transcription unit has a promoter, structural gene and terminator. The promoter at the upstream end is where RNA polymerase binds to start transcription; the terminator ends it, and splicing removes introns.

Q36 · Dance (classical and folk)

Kavadi Aattam is primarily associated with which state?

  1. Kerala
  2. Karnataka
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. Andhra Pradesh

Answer: C. Kavadi Aattam is a devotional dance of Tamil Nadu offered to Lord Murugan, in which devotees carry a decorated kavadi on their shoulders, especially during Thaipusam.

Q37 · Dance (classical and folk)

Identify the correctly matched folk dance and presiding deity:

  1. Dollu Kunitha - Lord Shiva
  2. Karma Nacha - Lord Ganesha
  3. Jagar - Goddess Lakshmi
  4. Karagattam - Lord Vishnu

Answer: A. Dollu Kunitha of Karnataka's Kuruba community honours Beeralingeshwara, a form of Shiva. Karma Nacha honours Karam Devta (the karam tree), and Karagattam of Tamil Nadu honours the rain goddess Mariamman.

Q38 · Books, authors and literary awards

The poetry collection Padapurana won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 in which language?

  1. Odia
  2. Telugu
  3. Sanskrit
  4. Urdu

Answer: A. Padapurana by Girijakumar Baliyar Singh won the 2025 award in Odia.

Q39 · Government schemes

Which portal is India's national database of unorganised workers including gig and platform workers?

  1. Udyam
  2. e-Shram
  3. NCS Portal
  4. ASEEM

Answer: B. The e-Shram portal of the Ministry of Labour (2021) registers unorganised workers with Aadhaar and gives a 12-digit UAN. Udyam is for MSME registration, NCS for jobs and ASEEM for skilled workforce mapping.

Q40 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

Compared to the EU, the most significant institutional limitation of BRICS is:

  1. Absence of binding supranational legal authority
  2. Lack of industrial economies
  3. Absence of nuclear capability
  4. Lack of a common religion

Answer: A. The EU has supranational institutions like the European Commission and Court of Justice whose decisions bind members. BRICS has no charter or secretariat and works by consensus through summits.

Q41 · Books, authors and literary awards

Which author and language pair (Poetry, Sahitya Akademi 2025) is correctly matched?

  1. Nandini Sidha Reddy - Urdu
  2. Pritpal Singh Betab - Sanskrit
  3. Girijakumar Baliyar Singh - Odia
  4. Khajur Singh Thakur - Telugu

Answer: C. Girijakumar Baliyar Singh won in Odia for Padapurana. The other three pairs are mismatched.

Q42 · Census 2011 and demography

What was the child sex ratio (0-6 years) as per Census 2011?

  1. 914
  2. 929
  3. 939
  4. 949

Answer: A. The key gives 914, the provisional figure; the final figure was 918 girls per 1000 boys. The overall sex ratio was 940 (final 943). Haryana had the lowest child sex ratio.

Q43 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

A police officer investigates a non-cognisable offence and reports to the magistrate that such an offence was committed. What is the status of this report under BNSS?

  1. It remains only a police report
  2. It is deemed a complaint, and the officer is deemed the complainant
  3. It converts the offence into cognisable
  4. It has no evidentiary value

Answer: B. The explanation to Section 2(1)(h) of BNSS (formerly CrPC 2(d)) says such a police report on a non-cognisable offence is deemed a complaint, with the officer as complainant.

Q44 · Persons in news

Who became the first person of Indian origin elected President-elect of the American Medical Association?

  1. Anjali Bhattacharya
  2. Bobby Mukkamala
  3. Vivek Murthy
  4. Atul Gawande

Answer: B. Dr Bobby Mukkamala, an otolaryngologist from Michigan, was elected AMA President-elect in 2024 and became its first Indian-origin president in 2025.

Q45 · GI tags and important days

What is the theme of the International Day of Forests 2026?

  1. Forests and Economies
  2. Forests and Innovation
  3. Forests and Health
  4. Forests and Sustainable Production

Answer: A. The International Day of Forests is observed on 21 March. The 2026 theme is Forests and Economies; 2025 was Forests and Food and 2024 was Forests and Innovation.

Q46 · ISRO and space missions

What imaging payload does the NISAR satellite carry?

  1. Optical cameras
  2. Dual-frequency synthetic aperture radars
  3. Gamma-ray detectors
  4. Infrared telescopes

Answer: B. NISAR, the NASA-ISRO SAR satellite launched on GSLV-F16 in July 2025, carries L-band (NASA) and S-band (ISRO) synthetic aperture radars to map Earth's surface changes.

Q47 · Temple and monument architecture

Where is the main garbhagriha located in a multi-tower Nagara-style temple?

  1. Directly under the tallest shikhara
  2. Beneath the lowest portico
  3. Between boundary gates
  4. On the main platform outside

Answer: A. In Nagara temples the garbhagriha, housing the main deity, always lies directly beneath the tallest shikhara. Smaller towers rise over the mandapa and porch in an ascending sequence.

Q48 · National income and development

Which indicator measures the health dimension of the HDI?

  1. Life expectancy at birth
  2. Birth rate
  3. Fertility rate
  4. Infant mortality rate

Answer: A. The UNDP's HDI has three dimensions: health (life expectancy at birth), education (mean and expected years of schooling) and standard of living (GNI per capita in PPP dollars).

Q49 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

Which PSU undertook oil and gas exploration projects in 16 countries after the 1991 reforms?

  1. BPCL
  2. ONGC
  3. HPCL
  4. IOCL

Answer: B. ONGC Videsh, the overseas arm of ONGC, took up exploration and production abroad. The NCERT cites it as an example of Indian PSUs expanding operations globally.

Q50 · Basic concepts and demand

What was the principal emphasis of Alfred Marshall's definition of economics, in contrast to Robbins?

  1. Allocation of scarce resources
  2. Human welfare and the material requisites of well-being
  3. Mathematical techniques
  4. Market equilibrium

Answer: B. Marshall's welfare definition, in Principles of Economics (1890), called economics a study of mankind in the ordinary business of life, focused on material requisites of well-being. Adam Smith gave the wealth definition and Robbins the scarcity definition.

Graduate · 23 Sep 2026, Shift 1, 10:00 AM

Q26 · Physics and chemistry

Why does a diamond sparkle more than other transparent materials?

  1. It absorbs light
  2. Its refractive index allows dispersion and internal reflection
  3. Surface smoothness
  4. Uniform scattering

Answer: B. Diamond has a very high refractive index of about 2.42 and a small critical angle of about 24 degrees, so light undergoes repeated total internal reflection. Its high dispersion splits light into colours.

Q27 · Biology

How do antigens stimulate an immune response?

  1. By neutralising pathogens
  2. By binding to lymphocytes and activating them
  3. By destroying infected cells
  4. By stimulating neurotransmitters

Answer: B. Antigens are foreign molecules recognised by receptors on B and T lymphocytes. Activated B cells produce antibodies, and T cells mediate cell-mediated immunity.

Q28 · Pollution and AQI

Ozone at ground level is considered:

  1. Beneficial
  2. A major air pollutant
  3. A minor pollutant
  4. A neutral gas

Answer: B. Stratospheric ozone protects us from UV rays, but ground-level ozone forms from NOx and VOCs in sunlight. It is a major pollutant in photochemical smog and harms lungs and crops.

Q29 · National income and development

What is the difference between GNP and GDP?

  1. Net factor income from abroad
  2. Depreciation
  3. Consumption of capital
  4. Taxes

Answer: A. GNP equals GDP plus net factor income from abroad (income residents earn abroad minus what foreigners earn in India). Depreciation is the difference between gross and net values such as GDP and NDP.

Q30 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

A key goal of the Quad's infrastructure initiatives is:

  1. To create an alternative to the Belt and Road Initiative
  2. To promote Europe-Asia trade
  3. To create a military network
  4. To isolate nations

Answer: A. The Quad of India, USA, Japan and Australia promotes transparent, quality infrastructure in the Indo-Pacific, seen as an alternative to China's BRI.

Q31 · Temple and monument architecture

Which is true about the construction of the Kailasa Temple at Ellora?

  1. Prefabricated blocks
  2. Carved out of a single rock from top to bottom
  3. Cast in stone
  4. Built from the base upward

Answer: B. The Kailasa temple (Cave 16) was carved by Rashtrakuta king Krishna I in the 8th century from a single basalt rock, cutting from top to bottom. It is the largest monolithic structure in the world.

Q32 · Asian, Commonwealth and other games

Who won India's first Olympic medal in badminton?

  1. P. Gopichand
  2. Saina Nehwal
  3. P. V. Sindhu
  4. Kidambi Srikanth

Answer: B. Saina Nehwal won bronze at London 2012, India's first Olympic badminton medal. P.V. Sindhu won silver in 2016 and bronze in 2020.

Q33 · Dance (classical and folk)

Garhwali dance is a folk dance of which state?

  1. Himachal Pradesh
  2. Jammu and Kashmir
  3. Uttarakhand
  4. Punjab

Answer: C. Garhwali dances belong to Uttarakhand's Garhwal region. Other Uttarakhand dances include Langvir Nritya, Barada Nati and Chholiya, a sword dance.

Q34 · Sculpture schools (Gandhara, Mathura)

Which best describes Ratan Parimoo's contribution to Indian art?

  1. Art critic of installations
  2. Art historian and educator focused on traditional art research
  3. Sculptor
  4. Digital artist

Answer: B. Ratan Parimoo, a Kashmir-born art historian associated with the Baroda faculty, researched Indian miniature and traditional art. He received the Padma Shri in 2025.

Q35 · Biology

Which microscopic organism is classified under microbiology but is not a prokaryote?

  1. Bacterium
  2. Virus
  3. Fungi
  4. Cyanobacteria

Answer: C. Fungi are eukaryotes with a true nucleus. Bacteria and cyanobacteria are prokaryotes, and viruses are acellular, so they are neither prokaryote nor eukaryote.

Q36 · Rules and terms

Which is true about a three-pointer in basketball?

  1. Taken within the key
  2. Only in the final minute
  3. Shot from beyond a marked arc
  4. Passing three defenders

Answer: C. A field goal from beyond the three-point arc, 6.75 m from the basket in FIBA rules, scores three points. Other field goals score two and free throws one.

Q37 · Ancient India

Which correctly orders these Sanskrit works from earliest to latest?

  1. Tripitaka, Ashtadhyayi, Buddhacharita, Parishishtaparvan
  2. Ashtadhyayi, Tripitaka, Buddhacharita, Parishishtaparvan
  3. Buddhacharita, Ashtadhyayi, Tripitaka, Parishishtaparvan
  4. Ashtadhyayi, Buddhacharita, Tripitaka, Parishishtaparvan

Answer: B. Panini's Ashtadhyayi is from around the 5th to 4th century BCE, the Tripitaka was compiled after the Buddhist councils, Ashvaghosha's Buddhacharita is from Kanishka's time (1st to 2nd century CE), and Hemachandra's Parishishtaparvan is from the 12th century.

Q38 · Medieval India

Which Sufi saint who promoted Sufism in Punjab has verses in the Adi Granth?

  1. Moinuddin Chishti
  2. Baba Farid
  3. Nizamuddin Auliya
  4. Shah Waliullah

Answer: B. Baba Farid (Fariduddin Ganjshakar), the Chishti saint of Pakpattan, wrote in Punjabi and 112 of his verses are in the Guru Granth Sahib. Moinuddin Chishti is at Ajmer and Nizamuddin Auliya at Delhi.

Q39 · Modern India

Who was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court under British rule?

  1. Elijah Impey
  2. Sadler commission
  3. Hartog
  4. Viscount Lee

Answer: A. Sir Elijah Impey became the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court at Fort William, Calcutta in 1774, under the Regulating Act. He was impeached later over the Nanda Kumar case.

Q40 · Dance (classical and folk)

Which folk dance is traditionally performed during Navratri in Gujarat?

  1. Garba
  2. Ghoomar
  3. Lavani
  4. Bhangra

Answer: A. Garba, performed in circles around a lamp honouring Goddess Durga, is the Navratri dance of Gujarat. UNESCO inscribed Garba on its Intangible Cultural Heritage list in 2023. Ghoomar is from Rajasthan and Lavani from Maharashtra.

Q41 · Amendments

Which amendment placed laws in the Ninth Schedule to bar judicial review, later limited by I.R. Coelho (2007)?

  1. 24th
  2. 42nd
  3. 44th
  4. 1st

Answer: D. The First Amendment, 1951 created the Ninth Schedule to protect land reform laws. In I.R. Coelho (2007) the Supreme Court held that laws added after 24 April 1973 can be reviewed if they violate the basic structure.

Q42 · Centre-State relations and Emergency

Under which condition can fundamental rights be suspended, and by whom?

  1. President, financial emergency
  2. PM, national crisis
  3. President, national emergency
  4. Parliament, amendment

Answer: C. During a National Emergency (Article 352), Article 358 suspends Article 19 automatically, and Article 359 lets the President suspend enforcement of other rights except Articles 20 and 21.

Q43 · Centre-State relations and Emergency

The Union can legislate on a State List subject in which situation?

  1. When Lok Sabha passes it
  2. When the Governor consents
  3. During President's Rule in that state
  4. When Parliament passes a budget

Answer: C. Parliament can legislate on State List subjects during President's Rule (Article 356), a National Emergency (Article 250), a Rajya Sabha resolution (Article 249), on states' request (Article 252), or for treaties (Article 253).

Q44 · Centre-State relations and Emergency

Under which condition can the President legislate for a State without Parliament?

  1. State Assembly prorogued
  2. During a Proclamation under Article 356
  3. Governor fails to act
  4. Council of States recommends

Answer: B. Under President's Rule, Parliament may delegate law-making power for the state to the President, who can also issue ordinances when Parliament is not in session.

Q45 · Budget, fiscal policy and taxes

Which reform after 1991 aimed to improve fiscal discipline?

  1. Minimum Wages Act
  2. FRBM Act
  3. Nationalisation
  4. SEZs

Answer: B. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 set targets to reduce the fiscal and revenue deficits. The N.K. Singh committee reviewed it in 2017.

Q46 · Minerals and industries

Which city is most important for India's diamond cutting and polishing industry?

  1. Pune
  2. Rajkot
  3. Surat
  4. Jaipur

Answer: C. Surat in Gujarat cuts and polishes most of the world's diamonds and is called the Diamond City. The Surat Diamond Bourse is among the world's largest office buildings. Jaipur is famous for gemstones.

Q47 · Physical features and rivers of India

What is the main feature of the Peninsular Plateau?

  1. Snow-capped peaks
  2. Volcanic origin
  3. Alluvial deposits
  4. Marshy lands

Answer: B. The key marks volcanic origin. The Peninsular Plateau is the oldest landmass, made of ancient igneous and metamorphic rocks of Gondwana origin, and its north-west Deccan Trap is formed of volcanic basalt.

Q48 · Census 2011 and demography

What does a higher crude birth rate indicate about a region's demographic stage?

  1. Advanced transition
  2. Aging population
  3. Early demographic transition
  4. High outflow

Answer: C. In the demographic transition model, stage one and two regions have high birth rates with falling death rates. Developed regions in late stages have low birth and death rates.

Q49 · Census 2011 and demography

What is the major policy implication of a bulging youth population?

  1. Reduces job demand
  2. Decreases spending
  3. Needs investment in skills and employment
  4. Requires expanding pensions

Answer: C. A large working-age population can yield a demographic dividend only with education, skilling and jobs. Without them it becomes a demographic burden.

Q50 · Census 2011 and demography

Which is the most appropriate indicator of demographic dependency?

  1. Crude birth rate
  2. Life expectancy
  3. Dependency ratio
  4. Sex ratio

Answer: C. The dependency ratio compares people aged 0 to 14 and 65 and above with the working-age group of 15 to 64.

Graduate · 24 Sep 2026, Shift 1, 10:00 AM

Q26 · Physical features and rivers of India

Through which pass does the Sutlej enter India from Tibet?

  1. Nathu La
  2. Shipki La
  3. Lipulekh
  4. Zoji La

Answer: B. The Sutlej rises near Rakas Tal by Mansarovar and enters India through Shipki La in Kinnaur, Himachal Pradesh. Nathu La links Sikkim and Tibet, Lipulekh is in Uttarakhand on the Kailash route, and Zoji La links Srinagar and Leh.

Q27 · Agriculture and land use

Which state is the largest producer of jowar?

  1. Punjab
  2. Rajasthan
  3. Maharashtra
  4. Gujarat

Answer: C. Maharashtra is the largest producer of jowar, a rain-fed crop of moist regions, followed by Karnataka. Rajasthan leads in bajra.

Q28 · Earth, universe and motions

Which statement correctly describes the geoid?

  1. Identical to the topographic surface
  2. A perfect sphere
  3. Varies with wind patterns
  4. Reflects global gravity variations

Answer: D. The geoid is the equipotential surface of Earth's gravity that matches mean sea level. Its undulations reflect variations in mass and gravity, unlike the smooth reference ellipsoid.

Q29 · Modern India

1. Before the Permanent Settlement (1793) zamindars had only the right to collect revenue. 2. After it, peasants became legal owners of land.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both
  4. Neither

Answer: A. Lord Cornwallis's Permanent Settlement made zamindars hereditary owners of land with a fixed revenue, and the sunset law sold their estates if they failed to pay. Peasants became tenants, not owners.

Q30 · Modern India

Ryotwari: 1. Started by Alexander Read in 1729 in Bombay Presidency. 2. Before Bombay it was introduced in Madras.

  1. Both
  2. Only 1
  3. Only 2
  4. Neither

Answer: C. Ryotwari began in Baramahal (Madras) in 1792 under Alexander Read and was extended by Thomas Munro in 1820. It reached Bombay later, so statement 1 is wrong on both year and place.

Q31 · Anti-doping

Which group of athletes must file whereabouts information under anti-doping rules?

  1. Junior Athletes
  2. Retired Athletes
  3. Registered Testing Pool
  4. National Athletes

Answer: C. Athletes in a Registered Testing Pool must give their location for one hour daily so they can be tested without notice. Three whereabouts failures within 12 months count as an anti-doping rule violation.

Q32 · Biology

The defect of vision caused by ageing and weakening of ciliary muscles is:

  1. Myopia
  2. Hypermetropia
  3. Presbyopia
  4. Cataract

Answer: C. Presbyopia reduces the eye's power of accommodation with age, corrected by bifocal lenses. Myopia uses a concave lens, hypermetropia a convex lens, and cataract is clouding of the eye lens.

Q33 · Biology

Why did Hershey and Chase use radioactive phosphorus?

  1. To label viral proteins
  2. To label bacterial DNA
  3. To label viral DNA
  4. To label bacterial RNA

Answer: C. In 1952 Hershey and Chase grew bacteriophages with phosphorus-32 to label DNA and sulphur-35 to label protein. Radioactive phosphorus entered bacteria, proving DNA is the genetic material.

Q34 · Appointments

Justice Surya Kant took oath as the ____ Chief Justice of India in 2025.

  1. 51st
  2. 52nd
  3. 53rd
  4. 54th

Answer: C. Justice Surya Kant became the 53rd CJI on 24 November 2025, succeeding B.R. Gavai (52nd). The President appoints the CJI under Article 124, and the CJI serves until 65.

Q35 · Dance (classical and folk)

Maibi Dance is a famous traditional dance of which state?

  1. Assam
  2. Manipur
  3. Maharashtra
  4. Mizoram

Answer: B. Maibi dance is performed by priestesses called maibis during the Lai Haraoba festival of Manipur, enacting creation.

Q36 · Dance (classical and folk)

Which pair of folk dance and state is correctly matched?

  1. Bhagoria - Madhya Pradesh
  2. Pandavani - Uttar Pradesh
  3. Dalkhai - Himachal Pradesh
  4. Karakattam - Kerala

Answer: A. Bhagoria is performed by Bhil tribes of Madhya Pradesh at the Bhagoria haat before Holi. Pandavani is from Chhattisgarh, Dalkhai from Odisha and Karakattam from Tamil Nadu.

Q37 · Government schemes

Under the Digital Agriculture Mission (2024-25 to 2028-29), what does DPI stand for?

  1. Department of Plant Inspection
  2. Digital Public Infrastructure
  3. Direct Price Intervention
  4. Daily Production Index

Answer: B. The Digital Agriculture Mission builds DPI such as AgriStack, with farmer IDs and a crop sown registry, and the Krishi Decision Support System.

Q38 · Books, authors and literary awards

The short story collection Bharkhama won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 in which language?

  1. Rajasthani
  2. Malayalam
  3. Assamese
  4. Tamil

Answer: A. Bharkhama won the 2025 award in Rajasthani. Rajasthani is among the 24 languages Sahitya Akademi recognises, though it is not in the Eighth Schedule.

Q39 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

The New Development Bank of BRICS differs from the Bretton Woods institutions because it:

  1. Rejects infrastructure finance
  2. Operates under UN control
  3. Is focused on military development
  4. Was designed to reflect greater equality among emerging economies

Answer: D. The NDB, set up in 2014 at Fortaleza and headquartered in Shanghai, gives each founding member an equal share and vote. In the IMF and World Bank, voting is weighted by quota. Dilma Rousseff heads the NDB.

Q40 · Books, authors and literary awards

Which author-language pair (Poetry, Sahitya Akademi 2025) is correctly matched?

  1. Pritpal Singh Betab - Dogri
  2. Khajur Singh Thakur - Urdu
  3. Yogesh Vaidya - Gujarati
  4. Ali Shaida - Bengali

Answer: C. The key marks Yogesh Vaidya for Gujarati poetry. Keep this pair along with Girijakumar Baliyar Singh (Odia, Padapurana) for revision.

Q41 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

A obtains B's consent for a dangerous procedure by falsely calling it a harmless test, and B is injured. What is correct under the BNS?

  1. Consent valid as B agreed
  2. Consent invalid as obtained under misconception of fact
  3. Valid unless B is under 12
  4. Invalid only if grievous hurt

Answer: B. Section 28 of the BNS (formerly IPC 90) says consent given under fear of injury or misconception of fact, known to the person getting it, is not valid consent.

Q42 · Awards and honours

On 16 June 2025, PM Modi was conferred the Order of Makarios III by which country?

  1. Greece
  2. Cyprus
  3. Malta
  4. Portugal

Answer: B. Cyprus gave PM Modi the Grand Cross of the Order of Makarios III, its highest honour, during his visit in June 2025. Makarios III was Cyprus's first President.

Q43 · Census 2011 and demography

As per Census 2011, which state had the highest total work participation rate?

  1. Punjab
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Arunachal Pradesh
  4. Nagaland

Answer: B. Himachal Pradesh had the highest WPR of about 51.9 percent, partly due to high female participation. The national WPR was about 39.8 percent.

Q44 · Forests, wildlife and biodiversity

In May 2026, the new evergreen tree species Humboldtia nairiana was found in which protected area?

  1. Periyar
  2. Wayanad
  3. Parambikulam
  4. Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary

Answer: D. Humboldtia nairiana was discovered in Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary in Kollam district, Kerala, part of the Agasthyamala biosphere in the Western Ghats.

Q45 · ISRO and space missions

Which combustion cycle does ISRO's SCE-200 semicryogenic engine use?

  1. Gas generator cycle
  2. Closed expander cycle
  3. Oxidiser-rich staged combustion cycle
  4. Pressure fed cycle

Answer: C. The SCE-200 burns refined kerosene (isrosene) with liquid oxygen in an oxidiser-rich staged combustion cycle. It will power the semicryogenic stage of LVM3 and later launchers.

Q46 · Sculpture schools (Gandhara, Mathura)

Which material was primarily used in Mathura School sculptures?

  1. Grey schist
  2. Spotted red sandstone
  3. Mud and stucco
  4. White marble

Answer: B. Mathura school sculptures used spotted red sandstone and were indigenous in style. Gandhara used blue-grey schist and later stucco, while Amaravati used white marble.

Q47 · National income and development

Which transformation is applied to GNI per capita in the HDI income dimension?

  1. Exponential
  2. Logarithmic
  3. Linear
  4. Square

Answer: B. The HDI uses the natural logarithm of GNI per capita because each extra dollar adds less to well-being as income rises.

Q48 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

Which policy instrument was dismantled under 1991 trade reforms?

  1. Canalisation of imports
  2. Quantitative restrictions on imports
  3. Export incentives
  4. Import duty concessions

Answer: B. Trade reforms removed quantitative restrictions on imports and exports, cut tariff rates and abolished import licensing except for hazardous and sensitive items, according to the NCERT.

Q49 · Physics and chemistry

A 2 kg object at 6 m/s compresses a spring by 0.20 m before stopping. What is the spring constant?

  1. 1800 N/m
  2. 280 N/m
  3. 720 N/m
  4. 360 N/m

Answer: A. The kinetic energy, half of 2 times 36, equals 36 J. This becomes spring energy, half of k times 0.04, so k equals 1800 N/m.

Q50 · Basic concepts and demand

Why is economics called the study of choice?

  1. Perfectly rational decisions
  2. Scarce resources must be allocated among competing uses
  3. Governments decide everything
  4. Producers decide preferences

Answer: B. Unlimited wants and scarce resources with alternative uses force choices, and every choice carries an opportunity cost.

Graduate · 25 Sep 2026, Shift 1, 10:00 AM

Q26 · Physics and chemistry

Why do metals conduct electricity better than non-metals?

  1. Larger atoms
  2. Tightly bound electrons
  3. Free electrons that move easily
  4. Reflect EM waves

Answer: C. In metallic bonding, the valence electrons form a sea of delocalised electrons that move freely and carry current. Silver is the best conductor, then copper. Graphite is a non-metal that conducts.

Q27 · Biology

Why is phosphorus an essential nutrient for organisms?

  1. Synthesises fatty acids
  2. Forms the backbone of nucleic acids
  3. Catalyses energy release
  4. Serves as cofactor

Answer: B. Phosphorus forms the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA and RNA and is part of ATP and phospholipids in cell membranes.

Q28 · Temple and monument architecture

Kerala temple architecture is heavily influenced by which environmental factor?

  1. Earthquakes
  2. Coastal erosion
  3. Monsoon climate with heavy rainfall
  4. High altitude

Answer: C. Kerala temples have steep sloping roofs of copper sheets or tiles and laterite and wooden walls to shed heavy monsoon rain. The circular shrine is called srikovil and the courtyard nalambalam.

Q29 · India and its neighbours (Chabahar, IMEC)

What is the potential long-term effect of Chabahar Port on regional geopolitics?

  1. Isolation
  2. Enhanced regional stability through economic interdependence
  3. Increased conflict
  4. Reduced technology

Answer: B. Chabahar in Iran's Sistan-Baluchestan gives India access to Afghanistan and Central Asia bypassing Pakistan, and links to the INSTC. India signed a 10-year operating deal for the Shahid Beheshti terminal in 2024.

Q30 · Climate change and agreements

Where did India rank among countries most affected by climate change in 2019?

  1. 3rd
  2. 5th
  3. 7th
  4. 9th

Answer: C. The Germanwatch Global Climate Risk Index 2021 placed India 7th most affected in 2019, mainly due to the long monsoon and cyclones.

Q31 · Anti-doping

India's National Anti-Doping Laboratory is located in:

  1. Mumbai
  2. New Delhi
  3. Bengaluru
  4. Hyderabad

Answer: B. The National Dope Testing Laboratory is at the JLN Stadium complex in New Delhi and is WADA-accredited. NADA was set up in 2005, and the National Anti-Doping Act was passed in 2022.

Q32 · Asian, Commonwealth and other games

In which year did chess become part of the Asian Games?

  1. 2002
  2. 2006
  3. 2010
  4. 2014

Answer: B. Chess debuted at Doha 2006 and returned at Guangzhou 2010, then was dropped and brought back at Hangzhou 2022 (held in 2023).

Q33 · Census 2011 and demography

What was the descending order of India's three most populous states in 2011?

  1. UP, Maharashtra, Bihar
  2. Maharashtra, Bihar, WB
  3. UP, Bihar, WB
  4. UP, WB, Bihar

Answer: A. Uttar Pradesh (about 19.98 crore), Maharashtra (11.24 crore) and Bihar (10.41 crore) were the top three, followed by West Bengal. Sikkim was the least populous.

Q34 · Census 2011 and demography

The old-age dependency ratio of India in 2011 was:

  1. 14.0%
  2. 14.1%
  3. 14.2%
  4. 14.3%

Answer: C. The old-age dependency ratio, people aged 60 and above per 100 people aged 15 to 59, was about 14.2 in 2011 according to the Elderly in India report.

Q35 · Books, authors and literary awards

Who translated Banu Mushtaq's award-winning work into English for the International Booker Prize?

  1. Arshia Sattar
  2. Deepa Bhasthi
  3. Lakshmi Holmstrom
  4. Karthika Nair

Answer: B. Heart Lamp, Banu Mushtaq's Kannada short stories, was translated by Deepa Bhasthi and won the 2025 International Booker. It was the first Kannada work and first short story collection to win it.

Q36 · Biology

The Bt gene in Bt cotton comes from which microorganism?

  1. Bacillus subtilis
  2. Rhizobium
  3. Bacillus thuringiensis
  4. E. coli

Answer: C. Bacillus thuringiensis produces Cry proteins toxic to insects such as the cotton bollworm. The cryIAc and cryIIAb genes control bollworms and cryIAb controls the corn borer.

Q37 · Ancient India

Which reflects the maritime trade network of Gupta-era India?

  1. Ujjain, Pataliputra, Nalanda were ports
  2. Trade only on the Silk Road
  3. Mathura and Ayodhya became maritime hubs
  4. Ports like Gantasala, Kadura, Chaul and Korkai traded with Southeast Asia and the Mediterranean

Answer: D. Gupta-era ports included Tamralipti in Bengal, Ghantasala and Kadura on the east coast, and Broach, Chaul and Kalyan in the west. Ujjain and Pataliputra are inland cities.

Q38 · Medieval India

Who were the two prominent women sovereigns in medieval Indian history?

  1. Razia Sultana and Chand Bibi
  2. Rudramadevi and Razia Sultana
  3. Rudramadevi and Nur Jahan
  4. Durgavati and Razia Sultana

Answer: B. Razia Sultan (1236 to 1240) was the only woman to rule the Delhi Sultanate. Rudramadevi of the Kakatiyas of Warangal ruled in the 13th century and was mentioned by Marco Polo.

Q39 · Modern India

Who provided a vibrant structure of British administration in India?

  1. Governor General
  2. British Crown
  3. British Parliament
  4. Supreme Court

Answer: C. Through Acts such as the Regulating Act (1773), Charter Acts and the Government of India Acts of 1858, 1919 and 1935, the British Parliament shaped administration in India.

Q40 · Dance (classical and folk)

Kathak derives its name from:

  1. Drum beats
  2. Sacred river
  3. Temple gate
  4. Storyteller

Answer: D. Kathak comes from katha (story), and kathakars were wandering storytellers. It flourished in Mughal courts and has Lucknow, Jaipur and Banaras gharanas.

Q41 · Dance (classical and folk)

In Manipuri Raas Leela, which feature is intentionally minimised?

  1. Hand gestures
  2. Foot stamping
  3. Costumes
  4. Facial expression

Answer: B. Manipuri dancers do not stamp feet or wear ankle bells, keeping movements soft and gentle. Facial expression is also restrained.

Q42 · Judiciary, doctrines and landmark cases

The Doctrine of Eclipse is associated with which provision?

  1. Article 14, laws void
  2. Article 13, pre-constitutional laws become dormant
  3. Article 32, PILs
  4. Article 136, SLP

Answer: B. Under Article 13(1), pre-Constitution laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights become dormant, not dead, and revive if the right is amended. This was laid down in Bhikaji Narain (1955).

Q43 · Schedules

Which schedule allocates Rajya Sabha seats to states and UTs?

  1. Fourth
  2. First
  3. Third
  4. Seventh

Answer: A. The Fourth Schedule lists Rajya Sabha seats; Uttar Pradesh has the most with 31. The Third Schedule has oaths and the Seventh has the three lists.

Q44 · Centre-State relations and Emergency

Under which article can the President impose President's Rule if a state fails to comply with Union directions?

  1. 356
  2. 352
  3. 365
  4. 360

Answer: C. Article 365 says if a state fails to comply with Union directions, the President may hold that its government cannot be carried on per the Constitution, which leads to Article 356.

Q45 · Union, states and territory (Articles 1 to 4)

What safeguard limits Parliament from altering State boundaries under Article 3?

  1. Prior approval of State Legislature
  2. Consulting the CM
  3. State Legislature's views must be considered
  4. Only Rajya Sabha approval

Answer: C. A bill under Article 3 needs the President's recommendation, who refers it to the State Legislature for its views. Parliament is not bound by those views.

Q46 · National income and development

The difference between potential GDP and actual GDP is known as:

  1. Output gap
  2. Fiscal space
  3. Structural deficit
  4. Budget surplus

Answer: A. A negative output gap means the economy is producing below capacity and has slack, and a positive gap means overheating and inflation pressure.

Q47 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

What change did the New Industrial Policy of 1991 bring to industrial licensing?

  1. Ban on industries
  2. Public sector monopoly
  3. Abolition of licensing in all but a few industries
  4. Quota system

Answer: C. Licensing was abolished except for a few industries such as alcohol, cigarettes, hazardous chemicals, explosives, electronic aerospace and drugs. Public sector reserved industries were cut to defence, atomic energy and railways.

Q48 · Minerals and industries

Which industry is most dependent on proximity to market rather than raw material?

  1. Oil refining
  2. Glass
  3. Bakery products
  4. Cotton spinning

Answer: C. Bakery products are perishable and the finished goods are bulkier than raw materials, so units are set up near consumers. Weight-losing industries like sugar and iron and steel locate near raw materials.

Q49 · Physical features and rivers of India

Why is the Chotanagpur Plateau called the storehouse of minerals?

  1. High population
  2. Heavy rainfall
  3. Ancient rock formations and tectonic stability
  4. Sacred rivers

Answer: C. Chotanagpur is part of the ancient Peninsular block of Archaean and Gondwana rocks, rich in coal, iron ore, mica, copper, bauxite and uranium.

Q50 · Census 2011 and demography

Which is a de facto population count in census terms?

  1. Registered voters
  2. Population present at the time of census
  3. Permanent residents
  4. Working professionals

Answer: B. A de facto census counts people where they are at the time of enumeration. A de jure census counts them at their usual residence. India uses a modified de facto method.

12th level · 16 Sep 2026, Shift 2, 01:30 PM

Q26 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

BIMSTEC mainly promotes cooperation among countries around which body of water?

  1. Arabian Sea
  2. Bay of Bengal
  3. South China Sea
  4. Indian Ocean

Answer: B. BIMSTEC, formed in 1997 by the Bangkok Declaration, has seven members: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand. Its secretariat is in Dhaka.

Q27 · Reports and indices

The Global Innovation Index 2025 is released by which organisation?

  1. World Economic Forum
  2. WIPO
  3. UNDP
  4. IMF

Answer: B. The GII is published by WIPO, headquartered in Geneva. Switzerland ranks first, and India ranked 38th in GII 2025.

Q28 · Reports and indices

Which country was the happiest for the ninth consecutive year in the World Happiness Report 2026?

  1. Finland
  2. Iceland
  3. Denmark
  4. Sweden

Answer: A. Finland topped the World Happiness Report, published by the Wellbeing Research Centre at Oxford with Gallup and the UN SDSN, for the ninth time running.

Q29 · ISRO and space missions

PSLV-C62 was launched from which location?

  1. Thumba
  2. Sriharikota
  3. Mahendragiri
  4. Balasore

Answer: B. PSLV missions launch from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Thumba is a sounding rocket station, Mahendragiri tests engines and Balasore (Chandipur) tests missiles.

Q30 · Census 2011 and demography

According to the 2011 Census, India's total population is ____ million.

  1. 1,028
  2. 1,210
  3. 3,287
  4. 1,350

Answer: B. India's 2011 population was about 121 crore (1,210.8 million), about 17.5 percent of the world population. 1,028 million was the 2001 figure, and 3,287 thousand sq km is India's area.

Q31 · Budget, fiscal policy and taxes

The budget document showing only current receipts and current expenditure is called the ____ budget.

  1. Capital
  2. Revenue
  3. Balanced
  4. Performance

Answer: B. The revenue budget covers revenue receipts (tax and non-tax) and revenue expenditure, which creates no assets. The capital budget covers borrowings, disinvestment and asset-creating spending.

Q32 · National income and development

Which indicator measures the total value of final goods and services produced within a country?

  1. GNP
  2. NNP
  3. GDP
  4. Personal Income

Answer: C. GDP is the market value of final goods and services produced within a country's domestic territory in a year. GNP adds net factor income from abroad.

Q33 · Five-Year Plans

Which committee was set up in 1955 to promote small-scale industries for rural development?

  1. Narasimham
  2. Karve
  3. Tendulkar
  4. Kelkar

Answer: B. The Karve Committee (Village and Small-Scale Industries Committee, 1955) suggested using small industries for rural development, according to the NCERT. Narasimham dealt with banking and Tendulkar with poverty.

Q34 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Which category of evidence must be direct under the BSA, 2023?

  1. Documentary
  2. Spoken oral evidence
  3. Electronic
  4. Secondary

Answer: B. Section 55 of the BSA (formerly 60 of the Evidence Act) says oral evidence must be direct: a fact seen must be proved by someone who saw it.

Q35 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

1. The BSA applies to all judicial proceedings including courts-martial. 2. It strictly applies to affidavits presented to any court or officer.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. Neither

Answer: A. Section 1 of the BSA applies it to all judicial proceedings in or before any court including courts-martial, but not to affidavits or arbitration proceedings.

Q36 · Ancient India

Which group correctly lists three of the six Vedangas?

  1. Siksha, Kalpa, Vyakarana
  2. Nirukta, Arthashastra, Smriti
  3. Chhanda, Purana, Upanishad
  4. Jyotisha, Brahmana, Aranyaka

Answer: A. The six Vedangas are Shiksha (phonetics), Kalpa (rituals), Vyakarana (grammar), Nirukta (etymology), Chhanda (metre) and Jyotisha (astronomy). Brahmanas, Aranyakas and Upanishads are parts of the Vedas.

Q37 · Minerals and industries

Which set has only non-metallic minerals used in local markets?

  1. Limestone, dolomite, phosphate
  2. Coal, petroleum, gas
  3. Copper, aluminium, iron
  4. Uranium, thorium, copper

Answer: A. Limestone, dolomite and phosphate are non-metallic minerals used in cement, steel flux and fertilisers. Coal, petroleum and gas are energy (fuel) minerals.

Q38 · Biology

In the Hershey-Chase experiment, why were bacteria radioactive only when infected by viruses grown with radioactive phosphorus?

  1. Phosphorus is in the protein coat
  2. Phosphorus is in DNA but not proteins
  3. Sulphur is in DNA
  4. Virus injected protein

Answer: B. DNA contains phosphorus but no sulphur, while proteins contain sulphur but no phosphorus. Only labelled DNA entered the bacteria, proving DNA is the genetic material. The question writes 35P, but the isotope used was phosphorus-32.

Q39 · Interior of Earth and geomorphology

The term nife for the Earth's core refers to dominance of:

  1. Nickel and feldspar
  2. Nitrogen and iron
  3. Nickel and iron
  4. Sodium and iron

Answer: C. The core is made of nickel (Ni) and iron (Fe), hence nife. The crust is sial (silica and aluminium) and the mantle is sima (silica and magnesium).

Q40 · Rules and terms

Jujutsu is the foundational martial art for which Olympic sport?

  1. Taekwondo
  2. Judo
  3. Karate
  4. Wushu

Answer: B. Judo was developed from jujutsu by Jigoro Kano in Japan in 1882 and became an Olympic sport in 1964. Taekwondo is Korean and Wushu is Chinese.

Q41 · Rules and terms

Which athletics term means exchange of a baton between two runners?

  1. Anchor
  2. Lap
  3. Heat
  4. Handover

Answer: D. The baton exchange in relays must happen inside a 30 m changeover zone. The anchor runs the last leg, and a heat is a qualifying race.

Q42 · Scientists and everyday technology

Who is known as the Father of Fibre Optics?

  1. Narinder Singh Kapany
  2. S.N. Bose
  3. Homi J. Bhabha
  4. Vikram Sarabhai

Answer: A. Narinder Singh Kapany coined the term fibre optics in 1960 and pioneered light transmission through glass fibres using total internal reflection. He received the Padma Vibhushan posthumously in 2021.

Q43 · Scientists and everyday technology

Who founded the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science in Kolkata?

  1. Meghnad Saha
  2. Mahendralal Sarkar
  3. J.C. Bose
  4. P.C. Ray

Answer: B. Dr Mahendralal Sarkar founded IACS in 1876. C.V. Raman did his Raman Effect research there in 1928.

Q44 · Appointments

Who took over as CMD of GAIL (India) Ltd in March 2026?

  1. Sandeep Kumar Gupta
  2. Deepak Gupta
  3. Anil Kumar Jain
  4. Rajiv Kumar Mishra

Answer: B. Deepak Gupta took charge as GAIL's CMD in March 2026, succeeding Sandeep Kumar Gupta. GAIL is a Maharatna PSU under the Ministry of Petroleum.

Q45 · Appointments

Who became Director General of Naval Armament at Naval HQ in March 2026?

  1. P. Upadhyay
  2. B.P. Singh
  3. Rakesh Aggarwal
  4. Shatrujeet Singh Kapoor

Answer: B. Shri B.P. Singh became DG of Naval Armament in March 2026. This was also asked in the Matric shifts, so revise it as a repeated fact.

Q46 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

The New Economic Policy was announced in India in the year:

  1. 1989
  2. 1990
  3. 1991
  4. 1992

Answer: C. The NEP was announced in July 1991 under PM P.V. Narasimha Rao and FM Manmohan Singh after a balance of payments crisis, with liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation.

Q47 · Medieval India

Which medieval ruler is called the Precursor of Akbar for his administrative and revenue reforms?

  1. Sher Shah Suri
  2. Alauddin Khalji
  3. Iltutmish
  4. Muhammad bin Tughlaq

Answer: A. Sher Shah Suri (1540 to 1545) measured land, introduced the silver rupiya, rebuilt the Grand Trunk Road and set up sarais. Todar Mal, who served him, later shaped Akbar's revenue system.

Q48 · Medieval India

Which Bhakti saint from Maharashtra composed Abhangas and was a contemporary of Shivaji?

  1. Dnyaneshwar
  2. Tukaram
  3. Eknath
  4. Namdev

Answer: B. Sant Tukaram (17th century), of the Varkari tradition devoted to Vitthala of Pandharpur, wrote Abhangas. Dnyaneshwar wrote the Dnyaneshwari commentary on the Gita.

Q49 · Forests, wildlife and biodiversity

According to FAO's Global Forest Resources Assessment 2025, India's global rank in total forest area is:

  1. 5th
  2. 7th
  3. 9th
  4. 11th

Answer: C. India moved up to 9th in total forest area in FRA 2025 and stays 3rd in annual forest area gain. Russia, Brazil, Canada, USA and China lead in area.

Q50 · Forests, wildlife and biodiversity

Which is a stated objective of the Green Credit Programme?

  1. Increase urban migration
  2. Expand industrial zones
  3. Restore degraded lands
  4. Promote fossil fuels

Answer: C. The Green Credit Programme, notified in 2023 under the Environment Protection Act and linked to Mission LiFE, rewards activities such as tree plantation on degraded land and water conservation. ICFRE administers it.

12th level · 17 Sep 2026, Shift 2, 01:30 PM

Q26 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Which of the following is newly introduced in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita?

  1. Mob lynching as a specific offence
  2. Blasphemy
  3. Triple talaq
  4. Manual scavenging

Answer: A. BNS Section 103(2) makes murder by a group of five or more on grounds of race, caste, sex or similar grounds punishable with death or life imprisonment. The BNS also added organised crime, terrorism and community service.

Q27 · Forests, wildlife and biodiversity

Which state has the highest number of national parks in India?

  1. Madhya Pradesh
  2. Karnataka
  3. Andaman and Nicobar
  4. Assam

Answer: A. Madhya Pradesh has the most national parks (12 or more including Kanha, Bandhavgarh and Panna) and the largest forest cover. Andaman and Nicobar has 9.

Q28 · Technology and research facilities

What is a key objective of the MACE Observatory at Hanle, Ladakh?

  1. Study visible starlight
  2. Detect high-energy gamma rays
  3. Observe radio waves
  4. Measure cosmic background

Answer: B. MACE, built by BARC, is the largest imaging Cherenkov telescope in Asia and the highest in the world, at about 4,300 m. It detects very high-energy gamma rays.

Q29 · Asian, Commonwealth and other games

In which Commonwealth Games edition did India finish second?

  1. 2002 Manchester
  2. 2006 Melbourne
  3. 2010 New Delhi
  4. 2018 Gold Coast

Answer: C. At the 2010 Delhi CWG India won 101 medals (38 gold), its best ever, finishing second behind Australia. The 2026 CWG is in Glasgow, and Ahmedabad will host in 2030.

Q30 · Basic concepts and demand

The demand curve shows the relationship between:

  1. Price and budget
  2. Income and expenditure
  3. Price and quantity demanded
  4. Cost and profit

Answer: C. The demand curve slopes downward, showing the inverse relationship between a good's price and the quantity demanded, with other factors held constant.

Q31 · PSUs and disinvestment

Why is Maharatna status granted to certain PSUs?

  1. Limit autonomy
  2. Provide greater financial and operational autonomy
  3. Privatise quickly
  4. State control

Answer: B. Maharatna (2009), Navratna (1997) and Miniratna PSUs have higher investment powers without government approval. Maharatnas include ONGC, NTPC, SAIL, IOC and BHEL.

Q32 · Five-Year Plans

Statement I: The 5th Plan proposed removing poverty and attaining self-reliance. Statement II: The rolling plan was launched between the 6th and 7th plans.

  1. Both correct
  2. Both incorrect
  3. I correct, II incorrect
  4. I incorrect, II correct

Answer: C. The Fifth Plan (1974 to 1979) aimed at Garibi Hatao and self-reliance. The Janata government's rolling plan ran from 1978 to 1980, between the 5th and 6th plans, so statement II is wrong.

Q33 · Dance (classical and folk)

Who brought global recognition to Bharatanatyam and received the Padma Bhushan?

  1. Mallika Sarabhai
  2. Rukmini Devi Arundale
  3. Uday Shankar
  4. Yamini Krishnamurthy

Answer: B. Rukmini Devi Arundale founded Kalakshetra in Chennai in 1936 and revived Bharatanatyam. She was the first woman nominated to the Rajya Sabha (1952) and received the Padma Bhushan in 1956.

Q34 · Reports and indices

What are the two major components of the GII framework?

  1. Determinants and Performance
  2. Drivers and Impact
  3. Innovation Input and Innovation Output sub-indices
  4. Efficiency scores

Answer: C. The GII has an Innovation Input Sub-Index (institutions, human capital, infrastructure, market and business sophistication) and an Innovation Output Sub-Index (knowledge and technology, creative outputs).

Q35 · Music and instruments

Lavani is a traditional folk music form of which state?

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Maharashtra
  3. Rajasthan
  4. West Bengal

Answer: B. Lavani is a Maharashtra form performed by women to the dholki beat. Powada (ballads) is another Maharashtra form.

Q36 · Centre-State relations and Emergency

How many types of emergencies can the President proclaim?

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. Five

Answer: B. The three emergencies are National (Article 352), State or President's Rule (356) and Financial (360). A financial emergency has never been declared.

Q37 · Music and instruments

Which raga is traditionally performed in the early morning?

  1. Bhairav
  2. Yaman
  3. Malkauns
  4. Darbari Kanada

Answer: A. Bhairav is a morning raga. Yaman is an evening raga, while Malkauns and Darbari Kanada are late-night ragas.

Q38 · Government schemes

Which 2025 initiative provides digital identities and simplifies verification for MSMEs?

  1. Udyam Registration 2.0
  2. Udyam Assist Platform
  3. MSME Digital Identity Mission
  4. Udyam Verification Scheme

Answer: B. The key marks the Udyam Assist Platform, which helps informal micro units get Udyam registration and formal identity. Udyam registration itself started in 2020.

Q39 · National income and development

In national income accounting, depreciation is subtracted from:

  1. GDP to get NDP
  2. GNP to get GDP
  3. NNP to get GNP
  4. Personal income

Answer: A. NDP equals GDP minus depreciation, and NNP equals GNP minus depreciation. NNP at factor cost is the national income.

Q40 · Ancient India

Which Veda has the earliest reference to the Dasarajna (Battle of Ten Kings)?

  1. Atharvaveda
  2. Samaveda
  3. Rigveda
  4. Yajurveda

Answer: C. Mandala 7 of the Rigveda describes the Battle of Ten Kings on the Parushni (Ravi), where Sudas of the Bharata clan won. Vasishtha supported Sudas and Vishvamitra the ten kings.

Q41 · Judiciary, doctrines and landmark cases

In a federal system resting on limited government, the Supreme Court is the final authority for:

  1. Administrative oversight
  2. Constitutional interpretation
  3. Criminal appeals
  4. Legislative drafting

Answer: B. In a federation the Supreme Court interprets the Constitution, settles Centre-state disputes (Article 131) and guards fundamental rights through judicial review.

Q42 · Biology

According to Hugo de Vries, what is the primary cause of speciation?

  1. Gradual variations
  2. Natural selection
  3. Minor changes
  4. Large mutations

Answer: D. Hugo de Vries, working on the evening primrose, proposed that large sudden mutations (saltation) cause speciation. Darwin stressed small gradual variations and natural selection.

Q43 · Sculpture schools (Gandhara, Mathura)

What stone did Gandhara sculptors choose for high relief carvings?

  1. Red sandstone
  2. Blue schist
  3. Black basalt
  4. White marble

Answer: B. Gandhara sculptors used blue-grey schist and later stucco. Mathura used spotted red sandstone and Amaravati white marble.

Q44 · Earth, universe and motions

Which is the brightest star visible in the night sky?

  1. Polaris
  2. Sirius
  3. Betelgeuse
  4. Vega

Answer: B. Sirius (Dog Star) in Canis Major is the brightest star after the Sun. Polaris is the Pole Star and Betelgeuse is a red supergiant in Orion.

Q45 · Temple and monument architecture

Which best describes the Arabesque style in Indo-Islamic buildings?

  1. Calligraphy
  2. Human and animal motifs
  3. Interlacing floral and vegetal designs
  4. Geometric stars

Answer: C. Arabesque is decoration with interlacing foliage and plant scrolls. Islamic art avoids human figures, so it uses arabesque, calligraphy and geometric patterns.

Q46 · Centre-State relations and Emergency

Which Article provides for an Inter-State Council?

  1. 261
  2. 263
  3. 267
  4. 272

Answer: B. Article 263 lets the President set up an Inter-State Council; it was formed in 1990 on the Sarkaria Commission's advice, chaired by the PM. Article 261 is about full faith and credit, and 267 the Contingency Fund.

Q47 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

Before 1991, the system of licences, quotas and permits was called:

  1. Quota System
  2. Permit Regime
  3. Control Mechanism
  4. License Raj

Answer: D. License Raj refers to the system that needed licences to start, expand or change industries, which caused delays and corruption. The 1991 policy largely ended it.

Q48 · Books, authors and literary awards

Which novel by Han Kang won the 2026 National Book Critics Circle Award for Fiction?

  1. The Vegetarian
  2. We Do Not Part
  3. Milkman
  4. Bliss Montage

Answer: B. Han Kang, the 2024 Nobel laureate in Literature, won for We Do Not Part, about the Jeju massacre. The Vegetarian won the 2016 International Booker.

Q49 · Books, authors and literary awards

Heart Lamp, the 2025 International Booker winner, is translated from which language?

  1. Tamil
  2. Hindi
  3. Malayalam
  4. Kannada

Answer: D. Heart Lamp by Banu Mushtaq, translated by Deepa Bhasthi, was the first Kannada book to win. Geetanjali Shree's Tomb of Sand (Hindi) won in 2022.

Q50 · Medieval India

The popularity of Francois Bernier's writings in Europe despite inaccuracies most strongly reflects:

  1. European comparisons accepted
  2. Factual preference
  3. Colonial authority
  4. Sole source

Answer: A. Bernier, a French physician at Shah Jahan's and Aurangzeb's courts, compared Mughal India unfavourably with Europe, claiming there was no private property in land. His writing fit European assumptions, so it was widely read.

12th level · 18 Sep 2026, Shift 2, 01:30 PM

Q26 · India and its neighbours (Chabahar, IMEC)

The IMEC initiative aims to strengthen connectivity between India and ____.

  1. East Asia and Africa
  2. Middle East and Europe
  3. Central Asia
  4. Southeast Asia

Answer: B. The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor was announced at the G20 New Delhi summit in 2023. It links India by sea to the UAE, by rail through Saudi Arabia and Jordan to Israel, then by sea to Europe.

Q27 · Reports and indices

What is India's rank in the World Happiness Report 2026 out of 147 countries?

  1. 104
  2. 116
  3. 126
  4. 134

Answer: B. India ranked 116th of 147 in 2026, up from 118th in 2025. Finland was first and Afghanistan last.

Q28 · Reports and indices

As per WHR 2026, which non-European country is among the top five happiest?

  1. Mexico
  2. New Zealand
  3. Costa Rica
  4. Israel

Answer: C. Costa Rica entered the top five. Remember the non-European outliers in the top ten, since examiners like this twist.

Q29 · ISRO and space missions

Which primary satellite was carried by the PSLV-C62 mission?

  1. RISAT-2B
  2. EOS-N1
  3. Cartosat-3
  4. GSAT-24

Answer: B. PSLV-C62 carried EOS-N1 as its primary payload in January 2026. It was also PSLV's 64th flight, asked in another shift.

Q30 · Census 2011 and demography

The largest linguistic group in India belongs to which language family?

  1. Austric
  2. Dravidian
  3. Sino-Tibetan
  4. Indo-Aryan

Answer: D. Indo-Aryan, part of the Indo-European family, is spoken by about 73 percent of Indians. Dravidian is about 20 percent, Austric about 1.4 percent and Sino-Tibetan about 0.85 percent.

Q31 · Five-Year Plans

What issue did many parts of India face in the last year of the Sixth Plan (1984-85)?

  1. Hyperinflation
  2. Severe famine conditions
  3. Stock market crash
  4. Industrial strikes

Answer: B. The key marks famine conditions, as drought hit several regions in the closing year of the Sixth Plan (1980 to 1985). The Sixth Plan still beat its 5.2 percent growth target with 5.7 percent.

Q32 · Minerals and industries

The North-Western mineral region of India covers which pair of states?

  1. Gujarat and Maharashtra
  2. Rajasthan and Punjab
  3. Gujarat and Rajasthan
  4. Haryana and Rajasthan

Answer: C. The North-Western belt along the Aravallis in Rajasthan and Gujarat has copper, zinc, lead, building stones and petroleum in Gujarat. Other belts are North-Eastern (Chotanagpur), South-Western and South-Eastern.

Q33 · Interior of Earth and geomorphology

The crust is described as brittle because:

  1. It contains magma
  2. It has soft minerals
  3. It easily breaks under stress
  4. It flows like plastic

Answer: C. The crust is the outermost solid, rigid layer that fractures under stress, causing faults and earthquakes. The asthenosphere below behaves plastically.

Q34 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

The WTO was founded in the year ____ as successor to GATT.

  1. 1948
  2. 1985
  3. 1991
  4. 1995

Answer: D. The WTO began on 1 January 1995 after the Uruguay Round's Marrakesh Agreement, replacing GATT of 1948. It is headquartered in Geneva and headed by Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala.

Q35 · Technology and research facilities

What is the world-leading resolution of the Bharat Forecasting System?

  1. 12 km
  2. 10 km
  3. 8 km
  4. 6 km

Answer: D. The BFS, developed by IITM Pune and launched in 2025, is the world's highest-resolution weather model at 6 km, run on the Arka supercomputer.

Q36 · Forests, wildlife and biodiversity

The Green Credit Programme aims to incentivise which actions?

  1. Environmentally positive actions
  2. Industrial expansion
  3. Trade liberalisation
  4. Urbanisation

Answer: A. Green credits reward voluntary actions like plantation, water management and waste management, and can be traded on a domestic platform.

Q37 · Rules and terms

Which badminton shot falls just near the net after crossing it?

  1. Drive
  2. Drop
  3. Clear
  4. Smash

Answer: B. A drop shot falls softly just over the net into the front court. A clear goes high and deep, a smash is a steep powerful downward hit and a drive is flat and fast.

Q38 · Rules and terms

Which gymnastics skill is performed in an inverted body position?

  1. Somersault
  2. Handstand
  3. Roll
  4. Leap

Answer: B. A handstand balances the body upside down on the hands. A cartwheel is a sideways rotation with hands and feet moving in turn.

Q39 · Awards and honours

Nipun Kumar Malhotra, recognised with the National Award 2025, is known for work in:

  1. Renewable Energy
  2. Disability Rights and Accessibility
  3. Agricultural Innovation
  4. Space Technology

Answer: B. Nipun Malhotra, founder of the Nipman Foundation and born with arthrogryposis, campaigns for disability rights and accessibility.

Q40 · Awards and honours

A. E. Muthunayagam, Padma Shri 2026, is known for contributions in which field?

  1. Biotechnology
  2. Space Research and Engineering
  3. Nuclear Physics
  4. Marine Science

Answer: B. A.E. Muthunayagam was a pioneer of ISRO's liquid propulsion systems and founding director of the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre.

Q41 · Persons in news

R. Nallakannu is best known for his association with which movement?

  1. Industrial revolution
  2. Freedom struggle
  3. Green revolution
  4. IT revolution

Answer: B. R. Nallakannu, a veteran Communist leader from Tamil Nadu, took part in the freedom struggle as a youth and later in peasant movements.

Q42 · Appointments

Who became the first woman Municipal Commissioner of BMC?

  1. Smita Sabharwal
  2. Ashwini Bhide
  3. Kiran Bedi
  4. Aruna Roy

Answer: B. Ashwini Bhide became BMC's first woman commissioner in March 2026. BMC is India's richest municipal corporation.

Q43 · Basic concepts and demand

Microeconomics primarily deals with:

  1. Government budget
  2. Inflation
  3. Individual economic units
  4. National income

Answer: C. Microeconomics studies individual units like consumers, firms and single markets. Macroeconomics deals with aggregates like national income, inflation and unemployment.

Q44 · Basic concepts and demand

A good with negative income elasticity is called:

  1. Inferior good
  2. Normal good
  3. Giffen good
  4. Luxury good

Answer: A. For inferior goods, demand falls as income rises, so income elasticity is negative. Normal goods have positive income elasticity and luxuries above 1. A Giffen good is a special inferior good that violates the law of demand.

Q45 · Ancient India

In Gupta administration, what did Uparika signify?

  1. Village headman
  2. Provincial governor
  3. Military commander
  4. Royal spy

Answer: B. Gupta provinces (bhuktis) were headed by Uparikas, districts (vishayas) by Vishayapatis, and villages by Gramikas. The Sandhivigrahika was minister for war and peace.

Q46 · Biology

Which best explains the role of enzymes?

  1. Increase activation energy
  2. Consumed in reactions
  3. Catalysts lowering activation energy
  4. Change end products

Answer: C. Enzymes are biological catalysts, mostly proteins, that lower activation energy and speed up reactions without being used up. They are specific to substrates and sensitive to temperature and pH.

Q47 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

What is mob lynching under the BNS?

  1. Violence by a group on grounds like identity or suspicion
  2. Only religious motives
  3. Prior conspiracy needed
  4. Simple assault

Answer: A. BNS 103(2) covers murder by a group of five or more on grounds of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief. The punishment is death or life imprisonment.

Q48 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

What distinguishes terrorism from organised crime?

  1. No distinction
  2. Terrorism threatens national security while organised crime seeks unlawful gain
  3. Terrorism always involves gain
  4. Organised crime only violent

Answer: B. BNS Section 113 defines a terrorist act as one threatening the unity, integrity, security or sovereignty of India. Section 111 defines organised crime as continuing unlawful activity by a syndicate for material benefit.

Q49 · Medieval India

Bernier's claim of declining manufactures coexisting with thriving exports and inflow of precious metals indicates:

  1. Decline can coexist with strong trade
  2. Exports reflect better production
  3. State control destroyed commerce
  4. Metals flowed without trade

Answer: A. The NCERT notes that despite Bernier's picture of decline, India exported textiles widely and received silver and gold in return. An economy can show internal problems alongside strong external trade.

Q50 · Medieval India

Ibn Battuta's matter-of-fact description of buying and gifting slaves indicates:

  1. Slavery was socially normal in his framework
  2. He was unaware of hierarchies
  3. He criticised slavery
  4. Slavery was unique to India

Answer: A. Ibn Battuta, the Moroccan traveller at Muhammad bin Tughlaq's court, wrote the Rihla. He described slaves being bought and gifted as normal practice, reflecting the accepted norms of his time.

12th level · 19 Sep 2026, Shift 2, 01:30 PM

Q26 · India and its neighbours (Chabahar, IMEC)

Chabahar Port is located in which country?

  1. Pakistan
  2. Afghanistan
  3. Iran
  4. Bangladesh

Answer: C. Chabahar is on Iran's Gulf of Oman coast in Sistan-Baluchestan. Gwadar in Pakistan, built by China, is about 170 km east of it.

Q27 · Reports and indices

What is India's rank in the Human Development Index 2025?

  1. 125th
  2. 128th
  3. 130th
  4. 135th

Answer: C. India ranked 130th of 193 in HDR 2025 (2023 data) with an HDI of 0.685, up from 133rd. Iceland was first.

Q28 · Reports and indices

What is the life evaluation scale used in the World Happiness Report?

  1. Cantril Ladder
  2. Likert Scale
  3. Gini Coefficient
  4. HD Scale

Answer: A. Respondents rate their lives from 0 (worst possible) to 10 (best possible) on the Cantril ladder in the Gallup World Poll.

Q29 · ISRO and space missions

The LVM3 used for the CMS-03 mission is classified as:

  1. Small launcher
  2. Medium lift
  3. Heavy lift launch vehicle
  4. Reusable

Answer: C. LVM3 is ISRO's heaviest launcher, carrying about 4,000 kg to GTO. CMS-03, about 4,410 kg, launched in November 2025 as the heaviest communication satellite launched from India.

Q30 · Census 2011 and demography

As per Census 2011, about ____ of India's population lives in urban areas.

  1. 25.34%
  2. 28.45%
  3. 31.16%
  4. 35.21%

Answer: C. Urban population was 31.16 percent (377 million) in 2011, up from 27.8 percent in 2001. Goa is the most urbanised state and Himachal Pradesh the least.

Q31 · Budget, fiscal policy and taxes

Which tax acts as an automatic stabiliser by maintaining a fixed percentage of income?

  1. Progressive
  2. Proportional
  3. Regressive
  4. Indirect

Answer: B. A proportional tax levies the same rate on all incomes, so the clue fixed percentage points to it. Its revenue rises and falls with income, which steadies demand. Progressive taxes are usually seen as stronger stabilisers.

Q32 · Budget, fiscal policy and taxes

Which policy tool directly influences aggregate demand through government spending?

  1. Monetary
  2. Fiscal
  3. Industrial
  4. Trade

Answer: B. Fiscal policy uses government spending and taxation, set by the Finance Ministry through the budget. Monetary policy uses interest rates and money supply, set by the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee.

Q33 · Five-Year Plans

What actual growth rate was achieved in the Eighth Plan (1992-97)?

  1. 5.6%
  2. 6.0%
  3. 6.8%
  4. 8.0%

Answer: C. The Eighth Plan, the first after liberalisation, targeted 5.6 percent and achieved about 6.8 percent. Plans were paused from 1990 to 1992 due to political instability.

Q34 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

The BSA, 2023 is applicable to:

  1. Only civil courts
  2. All judicial proceedings and executive inquiries
  3. All judicial proceedings and courts-martial
  4. Only HC and SC

Answer: C. The BSA applies to all judicial proceedings in or before any court, including courts-martial, but not to affidavits and arbitration.

Q35 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Under BNSS, what is the defining feature of a Zero FIR?

  1. No suspect named
  2. Filed regardless of jurisdiction
  3. Filed electronically
  4. No evidence

Answer: B. BNSS Section 173 lets an FIR be registered at any police station regardless of where the crime occurred, and then transferred. It also allows e-FIRs.

Q36 · Ancient India

Which rulers extended Saka power in western India?

  1. Bhumaka and Chahara
  2. Nahapana and Rudraprajeet
  3. Bhumaka and Nahapana
  4. Rudradaman and Gautamiputra

Answer: C. Bhumaka and Nahapana of the Kshaharata dynasty expanded Saka rule in western India. Gautamiputra Satakarni later defeated Nahapana, and Rudradaman I of the Kardamaka line issued the Junagarh inscription.

Q37 · Agriculture and land use

Assam contributes approximately how much to India's tea production?

  1. 45%
  2. 30%
  3. 50%
  4. 75%

Answer: C. Assam produces about half of India's tea, mainly from the Brahmaputra valley. West Bengal (Darjeeling, Dooars) is second. Tea needs warm humid climate and well-drained slopes.

Q38 · Biology

Which correctly describes the formation of a nucleosome?

  1. Negative RNA on neutral histones
  2. Positive DNA on negative hexamer
  3. Negatively charged DNA wrapped around a positively charged histone octamer
  4. Neutral DNA on basic protein

Answer: C. Histones are rich in lysine and arginine, making them positive, and they form an octamer. About 200 bp of negatively charged DNA wraps around it to make a nucleosome, the beads-on-string unit of chromatin.

Q39 · Interior of Earth and geomorphology

The outer core of Earth exists in which state?

  1. Solid
  2. Liquid
  3. Gas
  4. Plasma

Answer: B. The outer core is liquid, which is why S-waves do not pass through it and create a shadow zone. The inner core is solid due to immense pressure.

Q40 · Rules and terms

En Passant is associated with which sport?

  1. Fencing
  2. Chess
  3. Billiards
  4. Bridge

Answer: B. En passant is a special chess pawn capture of a pawn that has just moved two squares past it. Other chess terms include castling, stalemate, fork and gambit.

Q41 · Rules and terms

Which chess term means no legal move while NOT in check?

  1. Checkmate
  2. Stalemate
  3. Castling
  4. Gambit

Answer: B. Stalemate ends the game in a draw. Checkmate is when the king is in check and cannot escape.

Q42 · Modern India

Who wrote Gulamgiri, exposing caste oppression?

  1. B.R. Ambedkar
  2. Jyotirao Phule
  3. Periyar
  4. Vidyasagar

Answer: B. Jyotiba Phule wrote Gulamgiri in 1873 and founded the Satyashodhak Samaj the same year. He and Savitribai opened a girls' school in Pune in 1848.

Q43 · Modern India

Who designed the Indian National Flag?

  1. Badruddin Tyabji
  2. Pingali Venkayya
  3. Bankim Chandra
  4. Tagore

Answer: B. Pingali Venkayya designed the flag that the Constituent Assembly adopted, in modified form, on 22 July 1947. Surayya Tyabji is credited with the final design.

Q44 · Appointments

In January 2026, who was appointed Vigilance Commissioner?

  1. Sanjay Kothari
  2. Praveen Vashista
  3. Rakesh Asthana
  4. Vivek Joshi

Answer: B. Praveen Vashista became a Vigilance Commissioner in the CVC. The CVC has a Central Vigilance Commissioner and up to two Vigilance Commissioners, appointed by the President on a committee's recommendation.

Q45 · Appointments

Who was appointed DG of ITBP in January 2026?

  1. Shatrujeet Singh Kapoor
  2. Praveen Kumar Mukherjee
  3. Rakesh Aggarwal
  4. Daljit Singh Chawdhary

Answer: A. Shatrujeet Singh Kapoor became DG of ITBP, which guards the India-China border. Praveen Kumar became DG of BSF the same month.

Q46 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

The three components of NEP are Liberalisation, Privatisation and ____.

  1. Globalisation
  2. Nationalisation
  3. Centralisation
  4. Regulation

Answer: A. The LPG model: liberalisation removes controls, privatisation reduces state ownership, and globalisation integrates India with the world economy.

Q47 · Medieval India

Which Sufi saint is known as Chirag-i-Dehlavi?

  1. Nasiruddin Mahmud
  2. Salim Chishti
  3. Moinuddin Chishti
  4. Nizamuddin Auliya

Answer: A. Shaikh Nasiruddin Mahmud, the successor of Nizamuddin Auliya, was called the Lamp of Delhi. Salim Chishti lived at Fatehpur Sikri during Akbar's time.

Q48 · Medieval India

Which Maratha official handled royal correspondence, the Royal Household and the daily court diary?

  1. Amatya
  2. Sumant
  3. Danadhyaksha
  4. Sachiv

Answer: D. The key marks the Sachiv (Shurunavis), who handled royal correspondence. In Shivaji's Ashtapradhan, the Peshwa was PM, Amatya finance, Mantri the diary, Sumant foreign affairs, Senapati army, Panditrao religion and Nyayadhish justice.

Q49 · Technology and research facilities

The Bharat Forecasting System was developed by which institute?

  1. IISc
  2. NIO
  3. IITM Pune
  4. IMD

Answer: C. The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, developed BFS at 6 km resolution.

Q50 · Climate change and agreements

Geoengineering refers to large-scale interventions in which system to cool the planet?

  1. Stratospheric aerosols
  2. Earth's climate system
  3. Marine clouds
  4. Solar radiation

Answer: B. Geoengineering is the deliberate manipulation of Earth's climate system. Stratospheric aerosol injection and marine cloud brightening are techniques of solar radiation management, not the system itself.

12th level · 21 Sep 2026, Shift 2, 01:30 PM

Q26 · Awards and honours

1. PM Modi received the Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Ocean from Madagascar. 2. Justice V. Ramasubramanian was appointed NHRC chairperson on 21 December 2024. 3. S. Jaishankar received the Sri Chandrasekarendra Saraswathi National Eminence Award from SIES. Which are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. All three

Answer: B. PM Modi received that honour from Mauritius in March 2025, not Madagascar, so statement 1 is wrong. Justice Ramasubramanian heads the NHRC, a statutory body under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Q27 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Which section under the BNS addresses crimes against women?

  1. 354
  2. 69
  3. 20
  4. 40

Answer: B. Chapter V of the BNS (Sections 63 to 99) covers offences against women and children. Section 69 punishes sexual intercourse by deceitful means such as a false promise of marriage. Section 354 was the old IPC section for outraging modesty.

Q28 · Fundamental Rights, DPSP and UCC

The UCC passed in Uttarakhand excludes which community temporarily?

  1. Jains
  2. Christians
  3. Scheduled Tribes
  4. Muslims

Answer: C. Uttarakhand's UCC, in force from January 2025 as the first in independent India, exempts Scheduled Tribes. Goa already had a civil code from Portuguese times.

Q29 · Physical features and rivers of India

Corals are found in which of these places in India?

  1. Gujarat
  2. Punjab
  3. Chhattisgarh
  4. Rajasthan

Answer: A. India's coral reefs are in the Gulf of Kachchh (Gujarat), the Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay (Tamil Nadu), Lakshadweep, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Q30 · Census 2011 and demography

According to the 2011 census, which is the second most spoken language?

  1. Marathi
  2. Tamil
  3. Bengali
  4. Telugu

Answer: C. Hindi is first (about 43.6 percent), then Bengali (8 percent), Marathi (6.9 percent) and Telugu (6.7 percent). The Eighth Schedule has 22 languages.

Q31 · Festivals

Which North-Eastern festival known as the 100-drum dance is celebrated with rice beer?

  1. Wangala
  2. Hornbill
  3. Moatsu
  4. Saga Dawa

Answer: A. Wangala is the post-harvest festival of the Garo tribe of Meghalaya, honouring the sun god Saljong. Hornbill and Moatsu are from Nagaland.

Q32 · Government schemes

Which scheme was launched to promote entrepreneurship among SC and ST communities?

  1. Start-Up India
  2. Atmanirbhar Bharat
  3. Stand-Up India
  4. MUDRA

Answer: C. Stand-Up India (2016) gives bank loans of Rs 10 lakh to 1 crore to at least one SC or ST borrower and one woman borrower per bank branch for greenfield enterprises.

Q33 · Dance (classical and folk)

Adavus in Mohiniyattam: 1. Each adavu has stylised arm and body movements. 2. Adavus are in five zones of vertical body segments. 3. An adavu ends with a fixed teermanam pattern repeated four times. Which are true?

  1. Only 1 and 2
  2. Only 2 and 3
  3. Only 1 and 3
  4. All three

Answer: A. Adavus are the basic units of steps in Mohiniyattam and Bharatanatyam, with set body and arm movements. Statement 3 about a fixed four-time teermanam is not correct, per the key.

Q34 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

Which BRICS country has the highest population as of 2025?

  1. Brazil
  2. South Africa
  3. China
  4. India

Answer: D. India overtook China as the world's most populous country in 2023, according to UN estimates.

Q35 · India and its neighbours (Chabahar, IMEC)

Which body issued the statement on the BIMSTEC Young Professionals Exchange Programme in 2026?

  1. Commerce Ministry
  2. Skill Development Ministry
  3. NITI Aayog
  4. Ministry of External Affairs

Answer: D. The MEA handles BIMSTEC matters for India, including the young professionals exchange announced at the 2025 Bangkok summit.

Q36 · Reports and indices

Which country ranked 6th happiest in the World Happiness Report 2026?

  1. Denmark
  2. Iceland
  3. Finland
  4. Norway

Answer: D. The key marks Norway at 6th. Finland was first; remember the Nordic cluster at the top of the list.

Q37 · ISRO and space missions

Which satellite was launched in the LVM3-M5 mission?

  1. GSAT-11
  2. CMS-03
  3. Cartosat-3
  4. RISAT-2B

Answer: B. LVM3-M5 launched CMS-03 (GSAT-7R), a naval communication satellite of about 4,410 kg, in November 2025. LVM3-M4 had launched Chandrayaan-3.

Q38 · Minerals and industries

What is the approximate total length of navigable waterways in India?

  1. 13,500 km
  2. 14,500 km
  3. 13,700 km
  4. 14,200 km

Answer: B. India has about 14,500 km of navigable waterways. The National Waterways Act, 2016 declared 111 NWs. NW-1 (Ganga, Prayagraj to Haldia) is the longest.

Q39 · Biology

Which part of the neuron acquires information from the environment?

  1. Nerve endings
  2. Cell body
  3. Dendritic tip
  4. Axon

Answer: C. Information is picked up at the dendritic tips, travels as an electrical impulse to the cell body and along the axon, and is passed on at the synapse by chemicals.

Q40 · Sculpture schools (Gandhara, Mathura)

How are the drapery and dress of the Buddha depicted in Gandhara art?

  1. Transparent
  2. Many folds
  3. Plain silk
  4. Geometric

Answer: B. Gandhara Buddhas wear heavy robes with many deep folds in Greco-Roman style. Mathura Buddhas have thin, clinging robes.

Q41 · Music and instruments

What determines the pitch of sound in Tata Vadya?

  1. Shape
  2. Material
  3. Air column
  4. String tension

Answer: D. Tata vadyas are stringed instruments like sitar and veena; pitch depends on string tension, length and thickness. Air column length governs pitch in Sushira (wind) instruments.

Q42 · Books, authors and literary awards

Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar 2025 pairs: 1. Marathi - Harfas Harfas Zaag 2. Manipuri - Khoyum Nongdam Cow 3. Bengali - Ekrokha Chiruni Tollashi. Which are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. All

Answer: B. The key marks pairs 2 and 3 as correct. The Yuva Puraskar is for writers aged 35 or below, with a cash prize of Rs 50,000.

Q43 · Books, authors and literary awards

Which poet received the 2026 NBCC Award for Poetry for 'Night Watch'?

  1. Diane Seuss
  2. Morgan Parker
  3. Ada Limon
  4. Kevin Young

Answer: D. Kevin Young won for Night Watch. The National Book Critics Circle Awards are American literary prizes.

Q44 · Rules and terms

Which gymnastics movement involves rotating sideways with hands and feet moving in a circular motion?

  1. Handstand
  2. Cartwheel
  3. Forward roll
  4. Back roll

Answer: B. In a cartwheel the body rotates sideways as hands and feet touch down one after another, like spokes of a wheel.

Q45 · Persons in news

Anupama Ramachandran became the first Indian woman to win which championship?

  1. Asian Billiards
  2. IBSF World Snooker Championship
  3. Commonwealth Snooker
  4. World Pool

Answer: B. Anupama Ramachandran became the first Indian woman to win the IBSF World Snooker title. Pankaj Advani holds the most IBSF world titles among Indian men in billiards and snooker.

Q46 · ISRO and space missions

The primary objective of Aditya-L1 is to:

  1. Study the atmosphere
  2. Study solar activities and their impact
  3. Study the Moon
  4. Explore Mars

Answer: B. Aditya-L1, launched in September 2023 on PSLV-C57, is India's first solar observatory, at the L1 point about 1.5 million km away. It has seven payloads including VELC and SUIT.

Q47 · ISRO and space missions

Aryabhata, India's first satellite, was launched on:

  1. April 19, 1974
  2. April 19, 1975
  3. May 19, 1975
  4. April 20, 1976

Answer: B. Aryabhata was launched on 19 April 1975 on a Soviet Kosmos-3M rocket from Kapustin Yar. Rohini (1980, SLV-3) was the first satellite launched by an Indian rocket.

Q48 · Rules and terms

What is a raid in kabaddi?

  1. Substitution
  2. Attacking move into opponent's court
  3. Time-out
  4. None

Answer: B. In a raid, the raider enters the opposing half chanting kabaddi in one breath to touch defenders and return. Pro Kabaddi raids last 30 seconds.

Q49 · National income and development

National income is:

  1. Total savings
  2. Government income
  3. Individual income
  4. Total value of goods and services produced in a country

Answer: D. National income is the money value of final goods and services produced in a year, technically NNP at factor cost. In India it is estimated by the NSO.

Q50 · Reports and indices

WHR 2026 uses which instrument to determine its primary Life Evaluation ranking?

  1. Gini
  2. Cantril Self-Anchoring Scale
  3. Prosperity Survey
  4. GNH Metric

Answer: B. The Cantril self-anchoring ladder asks people to rate their lives from 0 to 10. Six factors explain the scores: GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom, generosity and perceived corruption.

12th level · 22 Sep 2026, Shift 2, 01:30 PM

Q26 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

The ____ Act, 2023 modernises the law of evidence in India.

  1. BNS
  2. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
  3. BNSS
  4. Indian Evidence Act

Answer: B. The BSA replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; the BNS replaced the IPC; and the BNSS replaced the CrPC. All three took effect on 1 July 2024.

Q27 · Physical features and rivers of India

Which state has the longest coastline in India?

  1. Gujarat
  2. Maharashtra
  3. Andhra Pradesh
  4. Tamil Nadu

Answer: A. Gujarat has the longest coastline of about 1,600 km (about 2,340 km by the 2024 re-measurement). Andhra Pradesh has the longest on the east coast. India's coastline is about 7,516 km, or 11,098 km revised.

Q28 · Asian, Commonwealth and other games

Who is the only Indian athlete to win medals in two consecutive Olympic Games?

  1. PV Sindhu
  2. Sushil Kumar
  3. Neeraj Chopra
  4. Abhinav Bindra

Answer: A / B / C. The key marks PV Sindhu (silver 2016, bronze 2020). The question is flawed: Sushil Kumar (2008, 2012) and Neeraj Chopra (2020, 2024) also won in consecutive Games.

Q29 · Basic concepts and demand

Which is an example of a Giffen good?

  1. Bajra (millet)
  2. Basmati rice
  3. Exotic vegetables
  4. Imported cheese

Answer: A. A Giffen good is a staple inferior good on which the poor spend much of their income, so a price rise increases its demand. Coarse grains like bajra are the textbook example.

Q30 · Government schemes

The SHRESHTA scheme provides quality education to meritorious students of which category?

  1. OBC
  2. Scheduled Castes
  3. EWS
  4. PVTG

Answer: B. SHRESHTA (Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas) places meritorious SC students of classes 9 and 11 in top private residential schools, under the Social Justice Ministry.

Q31 · Reports and indices

Which country entered the GII top 10 for the first time in 2025?

  1. India
  2. Germany
  3. China
  4. Finland

Answer: C. China entered the top ten of GII 2025 for the first time. Switzerland was first and India 38th.

Q32 · ISRO and space missions

PSLV-C62 marked which flight of PSLV?

  1. 60th
  2. 62nd
  3. 64th
  4. 66th

Answer: C. PSLV-C62 was the 64th PSLV flight, since the C-numbers do not run in strict order. PSLV first flew in 1993 and is called ISRO's workhorse.

Q33 · Five-Year Plans

Which Five-Year Plan proposed removal of poverty and attainment of self-reliance?

  1. Fourth
  2. Fifth
  3. Sixth
  4. Seventh

Answer: B. The Fifth Plan (1974 to 1979), drafted by D.P. Dhar, aimed at Garibi Hatao and self-reliance. It was ended a year early by the Janata government.

Q34 · Ancient India

What is a celt in the Neolithic period?

  1. A house
  2. A tool
  3. A tomb
  4. An urn

Answer: B. A celt is a polished stone axe or adze, typical of the Neolithic age, used for clearing forests and farming. Burzahom and Mehrgarh are key Neolithic sites.

Q35 · Parliament, Executive and services

Panchayati Raj was constitutionalised by which amendment?

  1. 61st
  2. 73rd
  3. 74th
  4. 86th

Answer: B. The 73rd Amendment, 1992 added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule with 29 subjects. The 74th covers municipalities (Part IXA, Twelfth Schedule), the 61st lowered voting age to 18 and the 86th made education a right.

Q36 · Biology

If double-stranded DNA has 20% adenine, what is the percentage of guanine?

  1. 20%
  2. 40%
  3. 30%
  4. 60%

Answer: C. By Chargaff's rule A equals T and G equals C. With A at 20 percent, T is 20, leaving 60 percent for G and C together, so G is 30 percent.

Q37 · Interior of Earth and geomorphology

Which earthquake waves are similar to sound waves and travel through gas, liquid and solid?

  1. S-waves
  2. Surface waves
  3. P-waves
  4. Rayleigh waves

Answer: C. P-waves are longitudinal compressional waves, like sound, and are the fastest, arriving first. S-waves are transverse and cannot pass through liquids. Surface waves are the most destructive.

Q38 · Sculpture schools (Gandhara, Mathura)

Where were female figures most prominently depicted on stupas in the Mathura style?

  1. Harmika
  2. Railings
  3. Anda
  4. Chhatri

Answer: B. Yakshis and shalabhanjikas were carved on stupa railing pillars (vedika) in the Mathura school. The anda is the dome, the harmika the railed platform on top and the chhatri the umbrella.

Q39 · Music and instruments

Sound in Avanaddha Vadya is produced mainly by vibrating:

  1. Strings
  2. Air
  3. Metal
  4. Membrane

Answer: D. Avanaddha vadyas are membranophones, drums like tabla, mridangam and dhol, where a stretched skin vibrates. Ghana vadyas vibrate solid metal or wood.

Q40 · Music and instruments

Naatupura Paadalgal, a folk music form, is mainly associated with:

  1. Religious rituals
  2. Military drills
  3. Royal events
  4. Farming seasons

Answer: D. Naatupura Paadalgal are Tamil Nadu folk songs sung during farming activities such as sowing and harvesting.

Q41 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

The maximum equity limit for FDI in most sectors was ____ under the NEP.

  1. Decreased
  2. Unchanged
  3. Increased
  4. Banned

Answer: C. The 1991 policy allowed automatic approval of up to 51 percent foreign equity in priority industries, raised from the earlier 40 percent cap under FERA. Limits have kept rising since.

Q42 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

Which committee's recommendations formed the basis of the 1991 financial sector reforms?

  1. Malhotra
  2. Chakravarty
  3. Verma
  4. Narasimham

Answer: D. The M. Narasimham Committee (1991) recommended lower SLR and CRR, deregulated interest rates and private banks. Malhotra was on insurance, Chakravarty on monetary policy.

Q43 · Books, authors and literary awards

Who received the Ivan Sandrof Lifetime Achievement Award at the 2026 NBCC Awards?

  1. Margaret Atwood
  2. Frances FitzGerald
  3. Rhoda Feng
  4. Elizabeth Taylor

Answer: B. Frances FitzGerald, the American journalist and author of Fire in the Lake, received the Ivan Sandrof award.

Q44 · Books, authors and literary awards

The author of the 2025 International Booker winner Heart Lamp is:

  1. Deepa Bhasthi
  2. Max Porter
  3. Banu Mushtaq
  4. Anita Desai

Answer: C. Banu Mushtaq, a Kannada writer, lawyer and activist from Karnataka, wrote Heart Lamp, and Deepa Bhasthi translated it.

Q45 · Parliament, Executive and services

Article 120 relates to:

  1. Powers of Judiciary
  2. Language of Parliament
  3. Removal of Judges
  4. Privileges

Answer: B. Article 120 says business in Parliament is in Hindi or English, with the Speaker or Chairman allowing mother tongues. Article 121 bars discussing judges' conduct, 122 bars courts from questioning proceedings, and 105 covers privileges.

Q46 · Persons in news

Radhika Gupta, honoured at the Drivers of Change Awards 2026, is CEO of which company?

  1. HDFC MF
  2. SBI MF
  3. Edelweiss Mutual Fund
  4. ICICI Prudential MF

Answer: C. Radhika Gupta is MD and CEO of Edelweiss Asset Management, one of the youngest CEOs in India's mutual fund industry.

Q47 · Fundamental Rights, DPSP and UCC

Which authority can restrict Fundamental Rights of the armed forces?

  1. President
  2. Supreme Court
  3. Parliament
  4. Prime Minister

Answer: C. Article 33 lets Parliament restrict or abrogate fundamental rights of the armed forces, paramilitary, police and intelligence agencies to maintain discipline.

Q48 · Budget, fiscal policy and taxes

What is understood by fiscal deficit?

  1. Imports minus exports
  2. Borrowings over expenditure
  3. Total expenditure minus total receipts excluding borrowings
  4. Revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts

Answer: C. Fiscal deficit shows the government's total borrowing need. Revenue deficit is revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts, and primary deficit is fiscal deficit minus interest payments.

Q49 · Temple and monument architecture

What was the primary purpose of the Hawa Mahal in Jaipur, designed by Lal Chand Ustad?

  1. Watchtower
  2. Let royal ladies watch street festivities unseen
  3. Cooling system
  4. Grain storage

Answer: B. Hawa Mahal, built in 1799 by Sawai Pratap Singh in pink sandstone, has 953 jharokhas. These let royal women watch street life without being seen, following purdah.

Q50 · Medieval India

The rejection of cremation and Dharmashastric funeral rites by Basavanna's followers signifies:

  1. Adaptation of Brahmanical practices
  2. An alternative religious framework challenging ritual authority
  3. Indifference to death
  4. Dependence on orthodox texts

Answer: B. The Lingayats (Virashaivas) of 12th-century Karnataka buried their dead and rejected caste, ritual and pollution rules. Their teachings are in vachanas.

12th level · 23 Sep 2026, Shift 2, 01:30 PM

Q26 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

The Quad was originally proposed in which year?

  1. 2005
  2. 2007
  3. 2010
  4. 2015

Answer: B. Japan's PM Shinzo Abe proposed the Quad in 2007, building on cooperation after the 2004 tsunami. It was revived in 2017, and the first leaders' summit was held in 2021.

Q27 · Reports and indices

The Human Development Index is released by:

  1. UNDP
  2. IMF
  3. WHO
  4. WEF

Answer: A. UNDP publishes the Human Development Report with the HDI, which was developed by Mahbub ul Haq and Amartya Sen in 1990. The WEF publishes the Global Gender Gap report.

Q28 · Reports and indices

Which country was at the very bottom of the World Happiness Report 2026?

  1. Yemen
  2. Afghanistan
  3. Sierra Leone
  4. Lebanon

Answer: B. Afghanistan ranked last, as in recent years. Sierra Leone and Lebanon were also near the bottom.

Q29 · ISRO and space missions

Which mission preceded the LVM3-M5 flight?

  1. Gaganyaan-D1
  2. Chandrayaan-3
  3. Aditya-L1
  4. SSLV-D2

Answer: B. LVM3-M4 launched Chandrayaan-3 in July 2023, and LVM3-M5 launched CMS-03 in November 2025. Aditya-L1 went on PSLV.

Q30 · Census 2011 and demography

As per Census 2011, the average population density of India is ____ persons per sq km.

  1. 117
  2. 200
  3. 382
  4. 828

Answer: C. Density was 382 per sq km in 2011, up from 325 in 2001. Bihar was the densest state at 1,106 and Arunachal Pradesh the sparsest at 17.

Q31 · Budget, fiscal policy and taxes

What is the excess of government expenditure over receipts excluding borrowings?

  1. Revenue deficit
  2. Fiscal deficit
  3. Primary deficit
  4. Budget deficit

Answer: B. Fiscal deficit equals total expenditure minus total receipts excluding borrowings. It indicates how much the government must borrow.

Q32 · Budget, fiscal policy and taxes

Payments by government without any goods or services in return are called ____ payments.

  1. Transfer
  2. Revenue
  3. Capital
  4. Subsidy

Answer: A. Transfer payments such as old-age pensions, scholarships and unemployment allowances are one-way payments. They are excluded from national income as they are not payment for production.

Q33 · Five-Year Plans

What were the target and actual growth rates for the Sixth Plan?

  1. 4.4 and 4.8%
  2. 5.2 and 5.7%
  3. 5.0 and 6.0%
  4. 5.6 and 6.8%

Answer: B. The Sixth Plan (1980 to 1985) targeted 5.2 percent and achieved 5.7 percent. The Eighth Plan targeted 5.6 percent and achieved 6.8 percent.

Q34 · Minerals and industries

How many National Waterways have been declared under the National Waterways Act, 2016?

  1. 111
  2. 121
  3. 212
  4. 132

Answer: A. The 2016 Act raised the number of National Waterways from 5 to 111. The Inland Waterways Authority of India in Noida develops them.

Q35 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Which punishment is newly introduced in the BNS, 2023?

  1. Fine
  2. Forfeiture
  3. Community service
  4. Rigorous imprisonment

Answer: C. Section 4(f) of the BNS adds community service as a punishment for petty offences such as small theft under Rs 5,000 for first-timers and defamation.

Q36 · Interior of Earth and geomorphology

Which earthquake waves travel fastest?

  1. Primary waves
  2. Secondary waves
  3. Surface waves
  4. Love waves

Answer: A. P-waves are the fastest and arrive first at seismographs. S-waves come next, and surface waves, Love and Rayleigh, arrive last but cause most damage.

Q37 · Rules and terms

The term Bully is a method used to restart play in which sport?

  1. Basketball
  2. Field Hockey
  3. Rugby
  4. Water Polo

Answer: B. A bully restarts field hockey play: two players tap sticks and then play the ball. Other hockey terms include short corner and penalty stroke.

Q38 · Rules and terms

Double Fault results in loss of a point in which sport?

  1. Volleyball
  2. Tennis
  3. Squash
  4. Billiards

Answer: B. In tennis, failing both serves is a double fault and gives the opponent the point. Other tennis terms include ace, deuce, love and let.

Q39 · Modern India

Who led the Rampa Rebellion of 1922 against British forest laws?

  1. Birsa Munda
  2. Alluri Sitarama Raju
  3. Komaram Bheem
  4. Sidhu Murmu

Answer: B. Alluri Sitarama Raju led the Rampa Rebellion (1922 to 1924) in the Godavari agency, Andhra Pradesh. Birsa Munda led the Ulgulan in 1899 to 1900, and Sidhu and Kanhu led the Santhal revolt of 1855.

Q40 · Asian, Commonwealth and other games

Who was the first Indian female athlete to win gold at the Asian Games?

  1. P.T. Usha
  2. Kamaljeet Sandhu
  3. Shiny Abraham
  4. M.D. Valsamma

Answer: B. Kamaljeet Sandhu won the 400 m gold at the 1970 Bangkok Asian Games. P.T. Usha won four golds in 1986 at Seoul.

Q41 · Appointments

Who became Chairperson of the 8th Pay Commission in November 2025?

  1. Indira Banerjee
  2. Ranjana Prakash Desai
  3. Ritu Raj Awasthi
  4. Uday Umesh Lalit

Answer: B. Justice (Retd.) Ranjana Prakash Desai chairs the 8th Pay Commission. She also chaired the Delimitation Commission for J&K and the Uttarakhand UCC drafting committee.

Q42 · Appointments

Who was made DG of BSF in January 2026?

  1. Shatrujeet Singh Kapoor
  2. Praveen Kumar
  3. Rakesh Aggarwal
  4. Manoj Yadav

Answer: B. Praveen Kumar became DG of BSF, which guards the Pakistan and Bangladesh borders. Shatrujeet Kapoor became DG of ITBP.

Q43 · PSUs and disinvestment

Government grants high-performing PSUs status as Navratna or ____.

  1. Uttamratna
  2. Miniratna
  3. Swarnratna
  4. Heeraratna

Answer: B. PSUs are classified as Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna Category I and II, giving them more autonomy over investments.

Q44 · Medieval India

The Dahsala System of Raja Todar Mal was based on the average of:

  1. Five years' prices
  2. Ten years' yields
  3. Previous crop
  4. Fixed tax

Answer: B. Under Akbar's Dahsala (Zabti) system of 1580, revenue was fixed at one-third of the average produce over the previous ten years, converted into cash.

Q45 · Technology and research facilities

The Bharat Forecasting System was launched by which Union Minister?

  1. S. Jaishankar
  2. Jitendra Singh
  3. Nitin Gadkari
  4. Piyush Goyal

Answer: B. Dr Jitendra Singh, Minister of State for Earth Sciences and Science and Technology, launched the BFS in May 2025.

Q46 · Climate change and agreements

What is the primary goal of geoengineering interventions?

  1. Remove greenhouse gases
  2. Boost fossil fuels
  3. Create deserts
  4. Remove ocean oxygen

Answer: A. Geoengineering includes carbon dioxide removal, like direct air capture, and solar radiation management to counter global warming. The key marks removal of greenhouse gases.

Q47 · Biology

Which cellular structure releases cytochrome c during apoptosis?

  1. Lysosome
  2. Mitochondria
  3. Nucleus
  4. Golgi apparatus

Answer: B. In apoptosis (programmed cell death), mitochondria release cytochrome c, which activates caspase enzymes. Mitochondria are also the powerhouse of the cell and have their own DNA.

Q48 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Under BNSS, which best reflects the shift in approach to FIR registration?

  1. Only within jurisdiction
  2. Preliminary inquiry mandatory
  3. Absolute discretion
  4. E-FIR and zero FIR strengthened

Answer: D. BNSS Section 173 lets an FIR be filed at any police station (zero FIR) and electronically (e-FIR), signed within three days. A preliminary inquiry is optional only for offences punishable with 3 to 7 years.

Q49 · Ancient India

How does evidence of craft materials and transport models inform our view of Harappan economy?

  1. Little trade
  2. External materials and routes show integrated exchange
  3. Only overland trade
  4. Crafts near water

Answer: B. Harappans got lapis lazuli from Afghanistan, copper from Khetri in Rajasthan and carnelian from Gujarat. Bullock-cart models and the Lothal dockyard show integrated land and sea exchange.

Q50 · Medieval India

The changing use of the term Hindu from geographical to religious identity illustrates:

  1. Sudden imposition
  2. Evolution of social categories over time
  3. Consistent meaning
  4. Direct translation

Answer: B. The term came from Persian for people beyond the Sindhu (Indus) and originally meant a region. Over centuries it came to mean a religious identity, showing how terms shift meaning.

12th level · 24 Sep 2026, Shift 2, 01:30 PM

Q26 · Judiciary, doctrines and landmark cases

Which Supreme Court ruling recognised transgender persons as the third gender?

  1. K.S. Puttaswamy
  2. NALSA v. Union of India
  3. Vishaka
  4. Navtej Singh Johar

Answer: B. NALSA (2014) recognised the third gender and self-identification. Puttaswamy (2017) made privacy a fundamental right, Vishaka (1997) set workplace harassment guidelines, and Navtej Johar (2018) decriminalised homosexuality.

Q27 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Which organisation is responsible for enforcing criminal laws in India?

  1. Parliament
  2. Supreme Court
  3. Police and Judiciary
  4. Election Commission

Answer: C. Parliament makes laws, the police investigate and enforce them, and courts try cases. Police and public order are State List subjects.

Q28 · Government schemes

The UDAN scheme is aimed at:

  1. Artisan skills
  2. Housing
  3. Regional air connectivity
  4. Digital education

Answer: C. UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik), launched in 2016 under the Regional Connectivity Scheme, caps fares on short regional routes to make flying affordable.

Q29 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

What does BIMSTEC stand for?

  1. Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
  2. Bengal International...
  3. Bay of Bengal Maritime...
  4. Bangladesh-India Myanmar...

Answer: A. BIMSTEC was formed in 1997 as BIST-EC with Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand, then expanded. The 6th summit was in Bangkok in 2025.

Q30 · Census 2011 and demography

Which is the primary source of demographic data in India, conducted every 10 years?

  1. NSS
  2. Registrar General and Census Commissioner
  3. Economic Survey
  4. NFHS

Answer: B. The Census, conducted every ten years since 1881, is run by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner under the Home Ministry. The 2021 Census was postponed and is now set for 2027.

Q31 · India and its neighbours (Chabahar, IMEC)

Which DPI initiative did India launch at the 2025 BIMSTEC Summit?

  1. Regional pilot studies
  2. Shared satellite networks
  3. Common currency
  4. Regional fibre cables

Answer: A. India offered to conduct pilot studies to assess BIMSTEC members' needs for digital public infrastructure, sharing its UPI and Aadhaar experience.

Q32 · Dance (classical and folk)

Which dance form integrates vachika abhinaya (spoken word) with dance?

  1. Kuchipudi
  2. Mohiniyattam
  3. Bharatanatyam
  4. Manipuri

Answer: A. Kuchipudi of Andhra Pradesh is a dance-drama where dancers also speak or sing dialogue. Tarangam, dancing on the rim of a brass plate, is unique to it.

Q33 · Festivals

Which is another name for Buddha Purnima?

  1. Guru Purnima
  2. Vesak
  3. Pavarana
  4. Magha Puja

Answer: B. Vesak (Vaishakha Purnima) marks the birth, enlightenment and death of the Buddha, observed on the full moon of Vaishakha.

Q34 · Biology

What are the specialised receptors that detect taste called?

  1. Olfactory
  2. Dendrite tips
  3. Sensory nerves
  4. Gustatory

Answer: D. Gustatory receptors in taste buds on the tongue detect taste. Olfactory receptors in the nose detect smell.

Q35 · Sculpture schools (Gandhara, Mathura)

The symbolic element around the head of Buddha figures in Gandhara art is the:

  1. Crown
  2. Halo
  3. Turban
  4. Garland

Answer: B. A halo (prabhamandala) around the head shows divinity. In Mathura images the halo is often plain or lightly decorated, while later Gupta halos are richly ornamented.

Q36 · Appointments

Whom did A.K. Balasubrahmanian succeed as Chairman of AERB in January 2026?

  1. D.K. Shukla
  2. R.S. Sharma
  3. P.K. Mishra
  4. V.N. Prasad

Answer: A. A.K. Balasubrahmanian succeeded Dr D.K. Shukla as Chairman of the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board, set up in 1983 in Mumbai.

Q37 · Music and instruments

Which instrument produces sound without being continuously struck by the player?

  1. Tavil
  2. Mridangam
  3. Nagara
  4. Damaru

Answer: D. The damaru, Shiva's hourglass drum, is shaken so knotted strings strike its two heads. Tavil, mridangam and nagara are struck directly by hand or stick.

Q38 · Forests, wildlife and biodiversity

Per FAO FRA 2025, how much CO2 did forests sequester annually during 2021-2025?

  1. 1.8 billion t
  2. 2.5 billion t
  3. 3.6 billion t
  4. 4.2 billion t

Answer: C. FRA 2025 says forests sequestered about 3.6 billion tonnes of CO2 a year. Forests cover about 4.14 billion hectares, roughly 32 percent of land.

Q39 · Books, authors and literary awards

What is Alex Green's book that won the 2026 NBCC Award for Biography?

  1. The Queen
  2. A Perfect Turmoil
  3. G-Man
  4. Stranger in the Shogun's City

Answer: B. Alex Green won the biography prize for A Perfect Turmoil. Remember the 2026 NBCC set: fiction (Han Kang), autobiography (Arundhati Roy), poetry (Kevin Young) and lifetime award (Frances FitzGerald).

Q40 · ISRO and space missions

In February 2025, the SUIT instrument captured:

  1. Lunar surface
  2. Asteroid belt
  3. Solar flare kernel
  4. Black hole

Answer: C. The Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope on Aditya-L1 captured a solar flare kernel in the near ultraviolet band for the first time.

Q41 · ISRO and space missions

The Axiom-4 mission enabled human spaceflight participation for:

  1. India, China, Russia
  2. India, Poland, Hungary
  3. USA, India, Japan
  4. France, Germany, India

Answer: B. Axiom-4 marked a return to human spaceflight after decades for India, Poland and Hungary, with Shubhanshu Shukla, Slawosz Uznanski and Tibor Kapu, under commander Peggy Whitson.

Q42 · Earth, universe and motions

The name Earth is derived from:

  1. Greek mythology
  2. Roman mythology
  3. Old English and Germanic words
  4. Sanskrit

Answer: C. Earth comes from the Old English eorthe, meaning ground or soil, with Germanic roots. It is the only planet not named after a Greek or Roman deity.

Q43 · Rules and terms

What is the Cant in kabaddi?

  1. Jumping
  2. Continuous chant kabaddi during raid
  3. Defensive formation
  4. Bonus

Answer: B. Cant is the raider's continuous chant of kabaddi in one breath. If the raider stops chanting in the opponent's court, he is out.

Q44 · Anti-doping

Which wrestler was provisionally suspended by NADA in May 2024 for refusing a urine sample?

  1. Sakshi Malik
  2. Bajrang Punia
  3. Ravi Dahiya
  4. Deepak Punia

Answer: B. Bajrang Punia was suspended and later banned for four years for refusing to give a sample in March 2024. He won bronze at Tokyo 2020.

Q45 · Basic concepts and demand

Inflation refers to:

  1. Increase in general price level
  2. More employment
  3. Less money
  4. Fall in prices

Answer: A. Inflation is a sustained rise in the general price level, measured in India by CPI, which the RBI targets at 4 percent plus or minus 2. A fall in prices is deflation.

Q46 · Books, authors and literary awards

Who wrote Devdas and Srikanta?

  1. Bankim Chandra
  2. Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
  3. Michael Madhusudan Dutt
  4. Bibhutibhushan

Answer: B. Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Devdas, Srikanta and Parineeta. Bankim Chandra wrote Anandamath (with Vande Mataram) and Bibhutibhushan wrote Pather Panchali.

Q47 · Reports and indices

In WHR 2026, social support is quantified through which metric?

  1. Welfare spend
  2. Help from friends or relatives
  3. Community centres
  4. Social service hours

Answer: B. Social support asks whether you have relatives or friends to count on in trouble. It is one of the six key variables in the report.

Q48 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

Which DPIIT initiative of 2014 ranks states on reform implementation to improve the business climate?

  1. Invest India
  2. PM Gati Shakti
  3. Business Reforms Action Plan
  4. Industrial Corridor

Answer: C. The Business Reforms Action Plan ranks states on ease of doing business reforms, encouraging competitive federalism.

Q49 · Modern India

Which 9th PM is called the Father of Indian Economic Reforms?

  1. Manmohan Singh
  2. P. V. Narasimha Rao
  3. Vajpayee
  4. I. K. Gujral

Answer: B. P.V. Narasimha Rao, PM from 1991 to 1996, launched the reforms with FM Manmohan Singh. He received the Bharat Ratna in 2024.

Q50 · ISRO and space missions

What strategic advantage does India's own PSLV provide?

  1. Reduces dependence on foreign launchers and builds indigenous satellite capacity
  2. Eliminates satellites
  3. Guarantees superiority
  4. Replaces ground stations

Answer: A. An indigenous launcher gives India assured access to space and earns commercial revenue through NSIL. PSLV launched a record 104 satellites in 2017 on PSLV-C37.

12th level · 25 Sep 2026, Shift 2, 01:30 PM

Q26 · Fundamental Rights, DPSP and UCC

The Child Labour Act, 1986 prohibits employment of children below ____ years in hazardous occupations.

  1. 12
  2. 14
  3. 16
  4. 8

Answer: B. Article 24 bans employing children below 14 in hazardous work. The 2016 amendment banned all work for children under 14 and hazardous work for adolescents aged 14 to 18.

Q27 · Agriculture and land use

Which cotton species is not cultivated in India?

  1. G. arboreum
  2. G. herbaceum
  3. G. barbadense
  4. G. tomentosum

Answer: D. India grows all four cultivated species, G. arboreum and herbaceum (desi), and G. hirsutum and barbadense (Egyptian). G. tomentosum is a wild Hawaiian species.

Q28 · Government schemes

PM-PRANAM incentivises states to reduce dependence on which input?

  1. Pesticides
  2. Chemical fertilisers
  3. Hybrid seeds
  4. Groundwater

Answer: B. PM-PRANAM (2023) gives states half of the subsidy they save by reducing chemical fertiliser use, to promote alternatives like organic and nano fertilisers.

Q29 · Ancient India

Which sage authored the Mimamsa Sutras?

  1. Jaimini
  2. Charaka
  3. Badarayana
  4. Panini

Answer: A. Jaimini wrote the Mimamsa Sutras. Badarayana wrote the Brahma Sutras (Vedanta), Gautama the Nyaya Sutras, Kanada the Vaisheshika, Kapila Samkhya and Patanjali the Yoga Sutras.

Q30 · Fundamental Rights, DPSP and UCC

Which Fundamental Right was removed by the 44th Amendment?

  1. Equality
  2. Property
  3. Religion
  4. Freedom

Answer: B. The 44th Amendment, 1978 removed the right to property (Articles 19(1)(f) and 31) and made it a legal right under Article 300A.

Q31 · Biology

The wings of a butterfly and a bird are examples of:

  1. Homologous structures
  2. Vestigial organs
  3. Analogous structures
  4. Hominid features

Answer: C. Analogous organs do the same function but have different origins, showing convergent evolution. Homologous organs, like human arms and whale flippers, share origin but differ in function.

Q32 · Temple and monument architecture

In Indo-Islamic architecture, what is the open courtyard of a mosque called?

  1. Liwan
  2. Sahn
  3. Mihrab
  4. Qibla

Answer: B. The sahn is the open courtyard, often with an ablution pool. The mihrab is the niche showing the qibla (direction of Mecca), and the liwan is the covered prayer hall.

Q33 · Music and instruments

Teejan Bai is associated with which folk tradition?

  1. Baul
  2. Lavani
  3. Bihu
  4. Pandavani

Answer: D. Teejan Bai of Chhattisgarh performs Pandavani, singing the Mahabharata stories. She received the Padma Vibhushan in 2019.

Q34 · Music and instruments

Pandavani belongs to which category of Indian music?

  1. Classical
  2. Devotional
  3. Tribal
  4. Folk

Answer: D. Pandavani is a folk ballad of Chhattisgarh, performed in Kapalik (improvised) and Vedamati (text-based) styles.

Q35 · PSUs and disinvestment

Selling part of government shareholding in a PSU to private investors is called:

  1. Nationalisation
  2. Disinvestment
  3. Liberalisation
  4. Globalisation

Answer: B. Disinvestment is managed by DIPAM under the Finance Ministry. Privatisation means transferring ownership and control.

Q36 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

Financial liberalisation in 1991 primarily referred to:

  1. Removing banking taxes
  2. Reducing private and foreign restrictions
  3. More state control
  4. Nationalising banks

Answer: B. Financial reforms cut CRR and SLR, freed interest rates, allowed private and foreign banks and raised FII limits, turning the RBI from regulator into facilitator.

Q37 · Books, authors and literary awards

Who won the 2026 NBCC Award for Autobiography for 'Mother Mary Comes to Me'?

  1. Arundhati Roy
  2. Geraldine Brooks
  3. Beth Macy
  4. Hanif Kureishi

Answer: A. Arundhati Roy won for her memoir about her mother Mary Roy. She won the Booker Prize in 1997 for The God of Small Things.

Q38 · Books, authors and literary awards

Heart Lamp was translated into English by:

  1. Banu Mushtaq
  2. Max Porter
  3. Deepa Bhasthi
  4. Arundhati Roy

Answer: C. Deepa Bhasthi translated it from Kannada. Max Porter chaired the 2025 International Booker jury.

Q39 · Parliament, Executive and services

Which Article restricts discussion on the conduct of Judges in Parliament?

  1. 119
  2. 120
  3. 121
  4. 122

Answer: C. Article 121 bars discussing SC or HC judges' conduct in Parliament except on a removal motion. Article 211 has the same bar for state legislatures.

Q40 · Rules and terms

Which badminton shot hits the shuttle high and deep to the backcourt?

  1. Drop
  2. Drive
  3. Toss
  4. Clear

Answer: D. The clear (lob) sends the shuttle high and deep to the back line, buying time. A drive is flat and fast.

Q41 · Awards and honours

Dr Kallipatti Ramasamy Palaniswamy, Padma Bhushan awardee, is known for contributions in:

  1. Agriculture
  2. Medicine and Healthcare
  3. Space
  4. Literature

Answer: B. Dr K. R. Palaniswamy was honoured with the Padma Bhushan in the field of medicine. The Padma awards are announced every year on Republic Day eve.

Q42 · Judiciary, doctrines and landmark cases

Who administers the oath to a High Court judge?

  1. President
  2. CJI
  3. Governor of the State
  4. Chief Minister

Answer: C. Under Article 219 the Governor, or a person appointed by him, administers the oath to HC judges. The President administers it to SC judges.

Q43 · ISRO and space missions

What is the advantage of placing Aditya-L1 at L1?

  1. Closer to Moon
  2. Continuous view of the Sun without eclipses
  3. Faster communication
  4. Less fuel

Answer: B. From a halo orbit around L1, about 1.5 million km from Earth, the Sun is never hidden by Earth or Moon, allowing continuous observation.

Q44 · Interior of Earth and geomorphology

Which layer of Earth is the thickest?

  1. Crust
  2. Mantle
  3. Outer core
  4. Inner core

Answer: B. The mantle extends to about 2,900 km and makes up about 84 percent of Earth's volume. The crust is the thinnest layer.

Q45 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

License Raj refers to:

  1. Export policy
  2. Agricultural reforms
  3. Industrial licensing system
  4. Free economy

Answer: C. It refers to the pre-1991 regime under the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 and the IDRA of 1951.

Q46 · Basic concepts and demand

What is meant by opportunity cost?

  1. Fixed cost
  2. Monetary cost
  3. Cost of production
  4. Next best alternative foregone

Answer: D. Opportunity cost is the value of the next best alternative given up. The production possibility curve shows it through its slope.

Q47 · Temple and monument architecture

The Pancha Pandava Rathas at Mahabalipuram are examples of:

  1. Brick
  2. Monolithic structures
  3. Indo-Saracenic
  4. Stucco

Answer: B. The five rathas were carved from single granite rocks under Pallava king Narasimhavarman I (Mamalla) in the 7th century. Mahabalipuram is a UNESCO site.

Q48 · Pollution and AQI

Why is a direct numerical comparison of AQI between India and USA technically complex?

  1. Sensor discrepancies
  2. Differing category breakpoints
  3. Real-time exclusions
  4. Calculation intervals

Answer: B. India and the USA use different concentration breakpoints and category ranges, so the same number means different health risk.

Q49 · Medieval India

The Battle of Talikota (1565) led to the decline of which empire?

  1. Chola
  2. Vijayanagara
  3. Bahmani
  4. Rashtrakuta

Answer: B. The Deccan sultanates of Bijapur, Ahmadnagar, Golconda and Bidar defeated Rama Raya of Vijayanagara at Talikota (Rakshasa-Tangadi) in 1565, and Hampi was sacked.

Q50 · Budget, fiscal policy and taxes

A deficit budget is usually preferred during:

  1. High inflation
  2. Economic depression or recession
  3. High growth
  4. Full employment

Answer: B. Keynesian theory recommends extra government spending in recessions to revive demand. During inflation, a surplus budget is preferred.

12th level · 26 Sep 2026, Shift 1, 10:00 AM

Q26 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

When did South Africa officially join BRIC, making it BRICS?

  1. 2006
  2. 2009
  3. 2010
  4. 2014

Answer: C. South Africa was invited in December 2010 and attended its first summit at Sanya, China in 2011. The term BRIC was coined by Jim O'Neill in 2001, and the first summit was in Yekaterinburg in 2009.

Q27 · Government schemes

Under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, what is the maximum subsidy for a 3 kW solar plant?

  1. Rs 45,000
  2. Rs 60,000
  3. Rs 78,000
  4. Rs 92,000

Answer: C. The scheme, launched in February 2024 to cover 1 crore households with rooftop solar and up to 300 units of free power, gives Rs 30,000 per kW up to 2 kW and Rs 18,000 for the third kW, capped at Rs 78,000.

Q28 · Asian, Commonwealth and other games

In which year is India scheduled to host the first BIMSTEC Games?

  1. 2025
  2. 2026
  3. 2027
  4. 2028

Answer: C. At the 6th BIMSTEC Summit in Bangkok in April 2025, India announced it would host the first BIMSTEC Games in 2027.

Q29 · Census 2011 and demography

As per Census 2011, the annual growth rate of India's population was:

  1. 2.2%
  2. 1.02%
  3. 1.64%
  4. 3.1%

Answer: C. The exponential annual growth rate was 1.64 percent in 2001 to 2011, down from 1.97 percent in the previous decade. Decadal growth was 17.7 percent.

Q30 · Dance (classical and folk)

On which occasions is the Gaur Maria dance typically performed by men and women?

  1. Harvest and Diwali
  2. Births and marriages
  3. Sowing and clearing fields
  4. Victory in battle

Answer: B. Gaur Maria is a dance of the Bison-horn Maria tribe of Bastar in Chhattisgarh, performed at weddings, with men wearing bison-horn headdresses.

Q31 · Festivals

The Shigmo festival of Goa is also known by which Sanskritised name?

  1. Shishirotsav
  2. Hanamatsuri
  3. Saga Dawa
  4. Losoong

Answer: A. Shigmo, Goa's spring festival linked to Holi, is also called Shishirotsav. Hanamatsuri is a Japanese festival, Saga Dawa is from Sikkim and Losoong is the Sikkimese new year.

Q32 · Biology

Which part of the brain maintains body posture and balance?

  1. Medulla
  2. Mid-brain
  3. Fore-brain
  4. Cerebellum

Answer: D. The cerebellum, part of the hindbrain, controls posture, balance and coordination of voluntary movements. The medulla controls involuntary actions like heartbeat and breathing, and the cerebrum is the seat of thought.

Q33 · Sculpture schools (Gandhara, Mathura)

In Gandhara art, the features of Buddha and Bodhisattva figures resemble which Greek deity?

  1. Zeus
  2. Apollo
  3. Hermes
  4. Poseidon

Answer: B. Gandhara art, a Greco-Roman influenced style, shows Buddha with Apollo-like features, wavy hair and heavy-folded robes in grey schist.

Q34 · Music and instruments

Avanaddha Vadya belongs to which category of musical instruments?

  1. Wind
  2. String
  3. Percussion
  4. Electronic

Answer: C. The Natyashastra groups instruments into four types: Tata (stringed, like veena), Sushira (wind, like flute), Avanaddha (membrane drums, like tabla and mridangam) and Ghana (solid idiophones, like cymbals).

Q35 · Forests, wildlife and biodiversity

India's forest and tree cover (ISFR 2023) is approximately what percentage of geographical area?

  1. 20.12%
  2. 23.54%
  3. 25.17%
  4. 30.25%

Answer: C. ISFR 2023 puts forest and tree cover at 25.17 percent, with forest cover about 21.76 percent and tree cover 3.41 percent. Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover by area.

Q36 · Appointments

Who was appointed Municipal Commissioner of BMC in March 2026?

  1. Smita Sabharwal
  2. Ashwini Bhide
  3. Durga Shakti Nagpal
  4. Ritu Maheshwari

Answer: B. Ashwini Bhide, known for leading Mumbai Metro work, became BMC's first woman Municipal Commissioner in March 2026.

Q37 · ISRO and space missions

The Axiom-4 mission is associated with which space platform?

  1. Lunar Gateway
  2. International Space Station
  3. Tiangong
  4. Mars Orbiter

Answer: B. Axiom-4 flew to the ISS on a SpaceX Dragon in June 2025 with astronauts from India, Poland and Hungary. Shubhanshu Shukla was the pilot.

Q38 · Earth, universe and motions

Earth's axis is tilted at:

  1. 20 degrees
  2. 23.4 degrees
  3. 25 degrees
  4. 30 degrees

Answer: B. Earth's axis is tilted about 23.5 degrees from the perpendicular to its orbit, making an angle of 66.5 degrees with the orbital plane. This tilt causes seasons and unequal day lengths.

Q39 · Rules and terms

Who are Antis in Kabaddi?

  1. Coaches
  2. Attackers
  3. Defenders in the court
  4. Substitutes

Answer: C. In kabaddi the raider is the attacker, and the defending team members trying to tackle him are called antis. A team has 7 players on court.

Q40 · Persons in news

In April 2026, who won gold in the recurve women's event at the World Archery Para Series in Bangkok?

  1. Sheetal Devi
  2. Bhawna
  3. Swati Chaudhary
  4. Payal Nag

Answer: B. Bhawna won the recurve women's gold at the Bangkok leg. Sheetal Devi, an armless archer, competes in the compound category.

Q41 · Basic concepts and demand

What does elasticity of demand measure?

  1. Responsiveness of demand to price changes
  2. Income level
  3. Change in supply
  4. Production level

Answer: A. Price elasticity measures how much quantity demanded responds to a change in price. Income elasticity and cross elasticity measure response to income and related goods' prices.

Q42 · Medieval India

Amuktamalyada, a Telugu epic poem, was composed by which ruler?

  1. Rajaraja Chola
  2. Krishnadevaraya
  3. Bukka Raya I
  4. Harihara II

Answer: B. Krishnadevaraya of the Tuluva dynasty of Vijayanagara wrote Amuktamalyada about Andal. His court had the Ashtadiggajas, eight poets including Allasani Peddana.

Q43 · Ancient India

Brihat Samhita, an encyclopaedic work on planets and agriculture, was written by:

  1. Varahamihira
  2. Aryabhata
  3. Brahmagupta
  4. Bhaskara I

Answer: A. Varahamihira, one of the nine gems of Chandragupta II's court, wrote Brihat Samhita and Pancha Siddhantika. Aryabhata wrote the Aryabhatiya and Brahmagupta the Brahmasphutasiddhanta.

Q44 · Pollution and AQI

How is the final value of India's National AQI determined?

  1. Mean of sub-indices
  2. Weighted PM2.5
  3. Highest individual sub-index
  4. Sum of top three

Answer: C. The overall AQI equals the highest sub-index among the pollutants measured, and that pollutant is reported as dominant. At least three pollutants including PM2.5 or PM10 are needed.

Q45 · Reports and indices

In which year is India scheduled to feature in the World Bank's B-READY report?

  1. 2024
  2. 2025
  3. 2026
  4. 2027

Answer: C. B-READY (Business Ready) replaced the discontinued Doing Business report. India was expected to be included in its 2026 edition.

Q46 · Awards and honours

M.S. Swaminathan, Bharat Ratna 2024, is the architect of which movement?

  1. White Revolution
  2. Blue Revolution
  3. Green Revolution
  4. Silver Revolution

Answer: C. M.S. Swaminathan led the Green Revolution of the 1960s with high-yielding wheat and rice. Verghese Kurien led the White Revolution (milk). Bharat Ratna 2024 also went to Karpoori Thakur, Chaudhary Charan Singh, P.V. Narasimha Rao and L.K. Advani.

Q47 · ISRO and space missions

What is the significance of Lagrange points in space missions?

  1. Increase gravity
  2. Reduce fuel needs for stable positioning
  3. Cause satellite decay
  4. Block solar radiation

Answer: B. At the five Lagrange points the gravitational pull of two bodies balances the orbital motion of a small object, so spacecraft stay in place with little fuel. Aditya-L1 sits at L1 and the James Webb telescope at L2.

Q48 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

What is the status of res gestae under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam?

  1. Continues with similar principles
  2. Applies only to documents
  3. Abolished
  4. Only civil cases

Answer: A. Res gestae, facts forming part of the same transaction, continues under Section 4 of the BSA, formerly Section 6 of the Evidence Act.

Q49 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

What is the status of burden of proof under the BSA?

  1. Only civil cases
  2. Never shifts
  3. Always on accused
  4. Primarily on prosecution but may shift in specific cases

Answer: D. Burden of proof lies on whoever asserts a fact, so in criminal cases it is on the prosecution. In specific situations, such as claiming a general exception, the accused carries it.

Q50 · Minerals and industries

Which best describes the spatial pattern of India's coal, petroleum and gas resources?

  1. Coal everywhere
  2. Coal in Himalayas
  3. One belt
  4. Coal in east/central India; petroleum off the west coast and Assam; gas with petroleum

Answer: D. Gondwana coal lies in the Damodar, Mahanadi, Godavari and Son valleys. Petroleum comes from Mumbai High, Gujarat and Assam (Digboi), and natural gas occurs with it and in the KG basin.

10th level · 16 Sep 2026, Shift 3, 05:00 PM

Q26 · Books, authors and literary awards

Which author won the Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2025 in English for stories?

  1. Nitin Kushalappa
  2. Chitra Raghavan
  3. Vaishali Shroff
  4. Rajakishore Parhi

Answer: A. Nitin Kushalappa won the Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2025 in English. The award, given by the Sahitya Akademi for children's literature in 24 languages, carries Rs 50,000.

Q27 · Appointments

Who was sworn in as Chief Minister of Bihar on April 15, 2026?

  1. Syed Ata Hasnain
  2. Samrat Choudhary
  3. Vijay Kumar Chaudhary
  4. Nitish Kumar

Answer: B. Samrat Choudhary took oath as Bihar's Chief Minister on 15 April 2026. The Governor appoints the Chief Minister under Article 164.

Q28 · Appointments

Whom did Vir Vikram Yadav replace as DG of DGCA in March 2026?

  1. Arun Kumar Mishra
  2. Sanjay Kumar Jain
  3. Faiz Ahmed Kidwai
  4. Rajesh Kumar Sahu

Answer: C. Vir Vikram Yadav succeeded Faiz Ahmed Kidwai as Director General of Civil Aviation. DGCA is the civil aviation regulator under the Ministry of Civil Aviation.

Q29 · Reports and indices

Brand Finance Global Soft Power Index 2026: which pair is correctly matched?

  1. Canada - 3rd
  2. Japan - 5th
  3. China - 2nd
  4. Israel - 10th

Answer: C. The USA stayed first and China second, while Japan overtook the UK to take third place (tested in another shift).

Q30 · Festivals

During which month is the Hornbill Festival celebrated every year?

  1. April
  2. August
  3. October
  4. December

Answer: D. Nagaland's Hornbill Festival, the festival of festivals, is held from 1 to 10 December at Kisama Heritage Village near Kohima, showcasing all Naga tribes.

Q31 · Judiciary, doctrines and landmark cases

Article 134 relates to appeals to the Supreme Court in which matters?

  1. Civil
  2. Revenue
  3. Criminal
  4. Service

Answer: C. Article 132 covers appeals in constitutional cases, Article 133 civil cases and Article 134 criminal cases. Article 136 provides special leave to appeal.

Q32 · Physical features and rivers of India

The largest part of the northern plain, formed of older alluvium, is called:

  1. Khadar
  2. Bhabar
  3. Terai
  4. Bhangar

Answer: D. Bhangar is older alluvium on higher ground above flood levels, with kankar nodules. Khadar is newer, fertile floodplain alluvium renewed every year.

Q33 · Rules and terms

How many periods are there in a standard basketball match?

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. Five

Answer: C. FIBA basketball has four quarters of 10 minutes each (12 in the NBA), with five players per side on court.

Q34 · Basic concepts and demand

In which economic system do government and market together decide what, how and for whom to produce?

  1. Capitalist
  2. Socialist
  3. Mixed economy
  4. Traditional

Answer: C. In a mixed economy, as India adopted after independence, both the market and the government make these decisions. In capitalism the market decides, and in socialism the government decides.

Q35 · Temple and monument architecture

Pietra Dura is mainly employed in which tradition?

  1. Rajput palaces
  2. Mughal tombs
  3. Buddhist stupas
  4. Gothic churches

Answer: B. Pietra dura is inlay of semi-precious stones in marble, perfected in Mughal buildings under Jahangir and Shah Jahan. Itimad-ud-Daulah's tomb first used it at scale, followed by the Taj Mahal.

Q36 · Centre-State relations and Emergency

Which feature best reflects cooperative federalism through Union-state collaboration in policy?

  1. Inter-State Council
  2. Emergency provisions
  3. Single citizenship
  4. Judicial review

Answer: A. The Inter-State Council under Article 263 lets the Union and states discuss common policy issues. Zonal Councils, NITI Aayog's Governing Council and the GST Council are other cooperative bodies.

Q37 · Centre-State relations and Emergency

Which situation lets Parliament legislate on the State List temporarily?

  1. Constitutional amendment
  2. National emergency
  3. Financial emergency
  4. Judicial review

Answer: B. Under Article 250, during a National Emergency Parliament can make laws on State List subjects. Such laws lapse six months after the emergency ends.

Q38 · Fundamental Rights, DPSP and UCC

Which Article abolishes titles except military and academic distinctions?

  1. 17
  2. 18
  3. 19
  4. 20

Answer: B. Article 18 abolishes titles and bars citizens from accepting foreign titles without the President's consent. In Balaji Raghavan (1996) the Court held Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are not titles.

Q39 · Physics and chemistry

Which force keeps planets in stable orbits around the Sun?

  1. Magnetic force
  2. Friction
  3. Gravitational attraction
  4. Nuclear forces

Answer: C. The Sun's gravity provides the centripetal force that keeps planets in orbit, according to Newton's law of universal gravitation. Kepler's laws describe these elliptical orbits.

Q40 · Earth, universe and motions

Why do polar regions have long periods of daylight or darkness?

  1. No atmosphere
  2. Earth's axial tilt
  3. Moon's rotation
  4. Ocean currents

Answer: B. Because the axis is tilted 23.5 degrees, the poles face toward or away from the Sun for months, giving six months of day and six of night. The Arctic Circle (66.5 degrees N) has at least one 24-hour day.

Q41 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

Which country is not a member of BIMSTEC?

  1. Thailand
  2. Nepal
  3. Pakistan
  4. Bhutan

Answer: C. BIMSTEC members are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand. Pakistan is a member of SAARC but not BIMSTEC.

Q42 · Scientists and everyday technology

What role does modern medical technology play in healthcare?

  1. Delays diagnosis
  2. Improves diagnosis accuracy
  3. Limits treatment
  4. No role

Answer: B. Imaging tools like MRI, CT scans and AI-based diagnostics detect disease early and improve treatment.

Q43 · Atmosphere, climate and oceans

What is the primary driver of the Thermohaline Circulation?

  1. Wind stress
  2. Density differences from temperature and salinity
  3. Tides from the Moon and Sun
  4. Coastal upwelling

Answer: B. The official key marks the tidal pull of the Moon and Sun, but scientifically the conveyor belt is driven by density differences from temperature (thermo) and salinity (haline). Cold, salty water sinks in the North Atlantic. Mark density in other exams.

Q44 · Interior of Earth and geomorphology

Which best describes isostasy?

  1. Plate movement by convection
  2. Gravitational equilibrium between crust and mantle, with crust floating at a height depending on thickness and density
  3. Chemical weathering
  4. Seafloor spreading

Answer: B. Isostasy means the crust floats on the denser mantle, like ice in water. Pratt and Airy gave two models of it; thick or light crust stands higher, which is why mountains have deep roots.

Q45 · Government schemes

How are Sambal and Samarthya sub-schemes of Mission Shakti structured?

  1. Sambal for safety and security; Samarthya for empowerment
  2. Urban and rural
  3. Both 100% central
  4. Credit and legal aid

Answer: A. Mission Shakti (2022) of the Women and Child Development Ministry has Sambal (One Stop Centres, Women Helpline 181, Beti Bachao Beti Padhao, Nari Adalat) and Samarthya (Shakti Sadan, Sakhi Niwas, creches, PM Matru Vandana Yojana).

Q46 · Government schemes

What is the significance of the U-WIN platform?

  1. NRI insurance
  2. Digital registry for the Universal Immunisation Programme to track pregnant women and children
  3. Student grants
  4. Health policy in UTs

Answer: B. U-WIN, modelled on Co-WIN, records every vaccination of pregnant women and children up to 16 years under the UIP, which covers 12 vaccine-preventable diseases.

Q47 · Biology

The muscular tube connecting the kidney to the urinary bladder is the:

  1. Urethra
  2. Ureter
  3. Nephron
  4. Renal artery

Answer: B. Ureters carry urine from kidneys to the bladder, and the urethra carries it out of the body. The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney.

Q48 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

Under 1991 financial reforms, the limit for foreign investment in private banks is:

  1. 33%
  2. 51%
  3. 74%
  4. 100%

Answer: C. The NCERT states that the foreign investment limit in banks was raised to about 74 percent. FDI in public sector banks is capped at 20 percent.

Q49 · Agriculture and land use

Which crop and season pair for northern states is correctly matched?

  1. Kharif - Wheat and Gram
  2. Rabi - Rice and Cotton
  3. Zaid - Vegetables and Fodder
  4. Kharif - Rapeseed and Mustard

Answer: C. Zaid crops grow in the short summer between rabi and kharif: watermelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder. Wheat, gram and mustard are rabi; rice and cotton are kharif.

Q50 · Census 2011 and demography

Which state had the lowest rural sex ratio as per Census 2011?

  1. Haryana
  2. Sikkim
  3. Rajasthan
  4. Punjab

Answer: A. Haryana had the lowest sex ratio among states overall (879) and also in rural areas. Kerala had the highest (1,084).

10th level · 17 Sep 2026, Shift 3, 05:00 PM

Q26 · Dance (classical and folk)

What is the stiff skirt used in Manipuri classical dance called?

  1. Pattasari
  2. Mekhala
  3. Poloi
  4. Phanek

Answer: C. The cylindrical stiff skirt is the Potloi (Poloi), worn in Raas Leela. The phanek is the everyday Manipuri sarong, and the mekhela is Assamese.

Q27 · Five-Year Plans

In which Five-Year Plan was Removal of Poverty (Garibi Hatao) the main objective?

  1. First
  2. Second
  3. Fourth
  4. Fifth

Answer: D. The Fifth Plan (1974 to 1979) focused on poverty removal and self-reliance; Garibi Hatao was Indira Gandhi's 1971 election slogan.

Q28 · Awards and honours

NitroCapt, winner of the 2025 Food Planet Prize for plasma-based green fertiliser technology, is from which country?

  1. Sweden
  2. Norway
  3. India
  4. Poland

Answer: A. Swedish startup NitroCapt extracts nitrogen from air using plasma and renewable electricity, avoiding the fossil-fuel based Haber-Bosch process.

Q29 · Books, authors and literary awards

Who won the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar 2025 for Hindi?

  1. Anjana Gupta
  2. Preeti Sinha
  3. Parvati Tirkey
  4. Pragati Bansal

Answer: C. Parvati Tirkey, a Kurukh tribal poet from Jharkhand, won the Yuva Puraskar 2025 in Hindi for her poetry collection.

Q30 · Books, authors and literary awards

Who wrote Kairos, the 2024 International Booker winner?

  1. Jenny Erpenbeck
  2. Han Kang
  3. Olga Tokarczuk
  4. Geetanjali Shree

Answer: A. Jenny Erpenbeck, translated from German by Michael Hofmann, won with Kairos in 2024. Geetanjali Shree won in 2022 with Tomb of Sand and Banu Mushtaq in 2025 with Heart Lamp.

Q31 · Temple and monument architecture

What was the main structural purpose of the Lodi double dome?

  1. Upper prayer hall
  2. Acoustic chamber
  3. To give strength and lower the inner height of the dome
  4. Store water

Answer: C. A double dome has an inner shell for proportionate interior height and a taller outer shell for external grandeur and strength. It appears in Sikandar Lodi's tomb and was perfected in Humayun's Tomb and the Taj Mahal.

Q32 · Earth, universe and motions

What causes day and night on Earth?

  1. Revolution
  2. Rotation on its own axis
  3. Moon's gravity
  4. Solar fluctuations

Answer: B. Earth rotates west to east once in about 24 hours, so half faces the Sun at any time. The circle dividing day and night is the circle of illumination.

Q33 · Earth, universe and motions

Which phenomenon explains the shift in star positions in the night sky at different times?

  1. Revolution
  2. Rotation on axis
  3. Lunar phases
  4. Solar flares

Answer: B. Through a single night, stars appear to move east to west because Earth rotates. Seasonal changes in visible constellations are caused by revolution.

Q34 · Centre-State relations and Emergency

When Union and State laws conflict on a Concurrent List subject and the state law has Presidential assent, which principle decides validity?

  1. Eclipse
  2. Repugnancy
  3. Severability
  4. Pith and Substance

Answer: B. Under Article 254, a Union law prevails over a repugnant state law, but per 254(2) a state law reserved for and given Presidential assent prevails in that state, until Parliament legislates again.

Q35 · Technology and research facilities

What is the role of communication satellites in TV and internet services?

  1. Local transmission
  2. Global signal distribution
  3. Limited coverage
  4. No role

Answer: B. Geostationary communication satellites like GSAT relay signals across large areas. INSAT-1B in 1983 began India's satellite TV era.

Q36 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

How does the BSA treat digital evidence?

  1. Only secondary
  2. Needs signed copy
  3. Primary evidence if authenticated
  4. Not admissible in heinous crimes

Answer: C. The BSA treats electronic records as documents and as primary evidence, and Section 63 lays down the certificate for authenticating them.

Q37 · Fundamental Rights, DPSP and UCC

Which constitutional principle supports the Uniform Civil Code?

  1. Free speech
  2. Directive Principles
  3. Fundamental Duties
  4. Right to Education

Answer: B. Article 44, a DPSP, asks the state to secure a uniform civil code. DPSPs (Part IV, Articles 36 to 51) are not justiciable.

Q38 · Rules and terms

What is dry firing in shooting?

  1. No paper backing
  2. Practising trigger squeeze and aim without live ammunition
  3. Cleaning barrel
  4. Penalty

Answer: B. Dry firing is practice without bullets to train trigger control, aim and breathing. Shooting gave India medals at Paris 2024 through Manu Bhaker and Swapnil Kusale.

Q39 · Rules and terms

What is the maximum number of players on the field in a kabaddi team during play?

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8

Answer: C. A kabaddi team has 7 players on court out of a squad of 12. Kabaddi was introduced at the 1990 Beijing Asian Games, and India has won most golds.

Q40 · Asian, Commonwealth and other games

What is the Asian Games medal system?

  1. Only gold
  2. Gold, silver and bronze
  3. Top two
  4. Points

Answer: B. The Asian Games, held every four years by the Olympic Council of Asia, award gold, silver and bronze. The first Games were held in New Delhi in 1951.

Q41 · Government schemes

PM-AASHA stands for:

  1. Aatma-Nirbhar Aay Sahayata Abhiyan
  2. Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan
  3. Annadata Awas Suraksha Abhiyan
  4. Agricultural Aay Samridhi Abhiyan

Answer: B. PM-AASHA (2018) ensures MSP to farmers through the Price Support Scheme, Price Deficiency Payment Scheme and Private Procurement pilot.

Q42 · Government schemes

Which organisation handles pension payout under PM-SYM?

  1. NABARD
  2. EPFO
  3. LIC
  4. RBI

Answer: C. LIC is the fund manager and pension payer under PM Shram Yogi Maandhan (2019), which gives unorganised workers Rs 3,000 a month after 60 on a 50:50 contribution.

Q43 · ISRO and space missions

Which vehicle deployed 36 OneWeb satellites, marking ISRO's entry into heavy commercial launches?

  1. PSLV-C54
  2. LVM3-M3
  3. GSLV-F10
  4. SSLV-D1

Answer: B. The key marks LVM3-M3. LVM3 launched OneWeb satellites in two batches of 36, LVM3-M2 in October 2022 and LVM3-M3 in March 2023, through NSIL.

Q44 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

Which institutions did India approach for loans in the 1991 crisis?

  1. WB and ADB
  2. WB and WTO
  3. World Bank and IMF
  4. RBI and WTO

Answer: C. Facing a balance of payments crisis, India took loans from the IMF and World Bank, which came with conditions for structural reforms. India also pledged gold.

Q45 · Biology

Which process is correctly matched with organisms or cells performing it?

  1. Lactic acid fermentation - Yeast
  2. Alcoholic fermentation - Muscle cells
  3. Aerobic respiration - Obligate anaerobes
  4. Anaerobic respiration - Yeast

Answer: D. Yeast respires anaerobically, producing ethanol and CO2. Muscle cells make lactic acid during intense exercise, which causes cramps.

Q46 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

In which year was the SCO established?

  1. 1996
  2. 2001
  3. 2005
  4. 2017

Answer: B. The SCO was formed in 2001 in Shanghai from the Shanghai Five (1996). India and Pakistan joined in 2017 and Iran in 2023. Its secretariat is in Beijing.

Q47 · Reports and indices

Which country had the highest HDI of about 0.972 in HDR 2025?

  1. Norway
  2. Switzerland
  3. Iceland
  4. Denmark

Answer: C. Iceland topped HDR 2025 at about 0.972, followed by Norway and Switzerland. India ranked 130th.

Q48 · Census 2011 and demography

Why are aggregate statistics like death rate considered social phenomena?

  1. Ignore individual differences
  2. Calculated mathematically
  3. Reflect patterns influenced by society
  4. Collected by government

Answer: C. The NCERT sociology text explains that rates like birth and death rates show collective patterns shaped by social factors such as health care, nutrition and income.

Q49 · Budget, fiscal policy and taxes

Tax reforms include:

  1. Removing taxes
  2. Only indirect taxes
  3. Increasing complexity
  4. Simplifying the tax system

Answer: D. Post-1991 reforms cut income and corporate tax rates and simplified procedures; GST in 2017 unified indirect taxes.

Q50 · Agriculture and land use

Groundnut accounts for nearly half of India's major oilseeds mainly because:

  1. Only irrigated areas
  2. It is widely grown as a kharif crop in several states
  3. Needs low temperatures
  4. Only for export

Answer: B. Groundnut, a rain-fed kharif crop, is grown widely; Gujarat is the largest producer. Mustard and rapeseed are rabi oilseeds.

10th level · 18 Sep 2026, Shift 3, 05:00 PM

Q26 · Books, authors and literary awards

Which poetry book by Amar Khungur Boro won the Yuva Puraskar 2025 in Bodo?

  1. Ang Asur
  2. Phir Ugna
  3. Kuchiyanama
  4. Junko Aansu

Answer: A. Amar Khungur Boro won in Bodo for Ang Asur. Bodo was added to the Eighth Schedule in 2003 with Dogri, Maithili and Santhali.

Q27 · Appointments

In April 2026, Lt. Gen. Dhiraj Seth was appointed as:

  1. Vice Chief of the Army Staff
  2. Chief of Air Staff
  3. Vice Chief of Defence Staff
  4. DMA

Answer: A. Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth became Vice Chief of the Army Staff in April 2026. General Upendra Dwivedi is the Army Chief.

Q28 · Appointments

Who was appointed Secretary of the Department of Land Resources in April 2026?

  1. Rajiv Gauba
  2. Narendra Bhooshan
  3. Sanjay Agarwal
  4. Anil Sharma

Answer: B. Narendra Bhooshan became Secretary of the Department of Land Resources under the Ministry of Rural Development. This was asked in two shifts.

Q29 · Reports and indices

Global Terrorism Index 2026: which pair is correctly matched?

  1. Pakistan - 3rd
  2. Nigeria - 8th
  3. Burkina Faso - 1st
  4. Israel - 10th

Answer: D. Israel was 10th. Burkina Faso was 2nd most affected, as tested in other shifts. The GTI is published by the Institute for Economics and Peace, Sydney.

Q30 · Festivals

The Wangala festival is primarily celebrated in which state?

  1. Meghalaya
  2. Kerala
  3. Punjab
  4. Rajasthan

Answer: A. Wangala, the Garo harvest festival honouring the sun god Saljong, is known as the 100 drums festival.

Q31 · Judiciary, doctrines and landmark cases

Article 133 deals with appeals to the Supreme Court in:

  1. Criminal cases
  2. Civil cases
  3. Constitutional cases
  4. Administrative acts

Answer: B. Article 133 covers civil appeals from High Courts when a substantial question of law of general importance is certified. Article 134 covers criminal appeals.

Q32 · Physical features and rivers of India

What is the northernmost range of the Himalayas called?

  1. Shiwaliks
  2. Himadri
  3. Himachal
  4. Purvanchal

Answer: B. The Greater Himalaya (Himadri) is the northernmost and highest range, averaging about 6,000 m, with peaks like Everest and Kanchenjunga. Himachal is the Lesser Himalaya and the Shiwaliks the outermost.

Q33 · Rules and terms

In badminton, when the server's score is even, from which court is the serve delivered?

  1. Left
  2. Right
  3. Back
  4. Centre

Answer: B. An even score means serving from the right court and an odd score from the left. Games are to 21 points under rally scoring.

Q34 · Five-Year Plans

Which Five-Year Plan had a 6.5% target and 5.4% actual growth?

  1. Seventh
  2. Eighth
  3. Ninth
  4. Tenth

Answer: C. The Ninth Plan (1997 to 2002) targeted 6.5 percent and achieved 5.4 percent. Its focus was growth with social justice and equity.

Q35 · Sculpture schools (Gandhara, Mathura)

In Mathura art, what does the Ushnisha on the Buddha's head represent?

  1. Crown
  2. Turban
  3. Bump
  4. Halo

Answer: C. The ushnisha is the cranial bump symbolising wisdom, one of the lakshanas (marks) of a great being. Mathura images show it as a spiral shell-like knot.

Q36 · Fundamental Rights, DPSP and UCC

Which provision ensures equality before law and equal protection of laws?

  1. 12
  2. 13
  3. 14
  4. 15

Answer: C. Article 14 gives equality before law (from British rule of law) and equal protection of laws (from the US Constitution) to all persons, not only citizens.

Q37 · Fundamental Rights, DPSP and UCC

Which Article abolishes untouchability?

  1. 16
  2. 17
  3. 18
  4. 19

Answer: B. Article 17 abolishes untouchability. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (renamed in 1976) and the SC/ST Atrocities Act, 1989 enforce it.

Q38 · Earth, universe and motions

What galaxy contains our solar system?

  1. Andromeda
  2. Milky Way
  3. Orion Nebula
  4. Pegasus

Answer: B. The Milky Way is a barred spiral galaxy, and the Sun sits on the Orion arm. Andromeda is the nearest large galaxy.

Q39 · Earth, universe and motions

What causes the variation in time zones across longitudes?

  1. Revolution
  2. Rotation of Earth
  3. Winds
  4. Tides

Answer: B. Earth rotates 360 degrees in 24 hours, or 15 degrees per hour, so time differs by 4 minutes per degree of longitude. IST is based on 82.5 degrees E near Mirzapur.

Q40 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

What is the expanded composition of BRICS as of 2025?

  1. Only 5 founders
  2. Includes UAE, Iran, Egypt, Ethiopia and Indonesia
  3. Only Asian
  4. Only G20

Answer: B. Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran and UAE joined in 2024 and Indonesia in January 2025. Saudi Arabia has not formally confirmed membership. India chairs BRICS in 2026.

Q41 · Scientists and everyday technology

What is the importance of technology in disaster management?

  1. Delays response
  2. Improves preparedness
  3. Limits action
  4. No role

Answer: B. Satellites, early warning systems and mobile alerts help evacuate people in time. NDMA, chaired by the PM, leads disaster management under the 2005 Act.

Q42 · Climate change and agreements

The Deep Ecology movement of Arne Naess advocates:

  1. Sustainable development for humans
  2. A shift from anthropocentrism to biocentrism, valuing all life regardless of use to humans
  3. Technology
  4. Carbon markets

Answer: B. Deep ecology says all living beings have intrinsic worth. Shallow ecology values nature only for human benefit.

Q43 · Climate change and agreements

The Krakatoa Mechanism refers to:

  1. Volcanic aerosols in the stratosphere reflecting solar radiation and causing cooling
  2. Tsunamis
  3. Plate movement
  4. Sound waves

Answer: A. Big eruptions like Krakatoa (1883) and Pinatubo (1991) put sulphate aerosols into the stratosphere, reflecting sunlight and cooling the planet. This is the idea behind stratospheric aerosol geoengineering.

Q44 · Government schemes

Which is correct about the governance of PM-ABHIM?

  1. 100% central
  2. Fills health infrastructure gaps through both Central Sector and Centrally Sponsored components
  3. Only NITI Aayog
  4. Only rural

Answer: B. PM-ABHIM (2021) strengthens critical care blocks, labs and surveillance, with central sector and centrally sponsored parts, covering both rural and urban areas.

Q45 · Government schemes

What is the objective of the SVAMITVA scheme?

  1. Urban housing
  2. Rural property ownership mapping using drones
  3. Subsidy
  4. Land acquisition

Answer: B. SVAMITVA (2020, Panchayati Raj Ministry) maps inhabited rural land with drones and issues property cards so owners can use them for loans.

Q46 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

When a company hires regular services from external sources, often abroad, it is:

  1. Privatisation
  2. Outsourcing
  3. Deregulation
  4. Exporting

Answer: B. Outsourcing means hiring external firms for services like call centres, accounting and software. It grew after 1991 thanks to IT and cheap skilled labour.

Q47 · Agriculture and land use

Which statement on rice cultivation is correct?

  1. Punjab grows Ravi, Jethu, Sharat
  2. West Bengal grows Aus, Aman and Boro paddy
  3. Kerala grows Nila, Pamba, Periyar
  4. Odisha grows Suna, Rupa, Hera

Answer: B. In West Bengal farmers grow three rice crops: aus (autumn), aman (winter) and boro (summer). The NCERT cites this as an example of intensive rice farming.

Q48 · Biology

The transmission of characteristics from parents to offspring is called:

  1. Variation
  2. Heredity
  3. Evolution
  4. Mutation

Answer: B. Heredity passes traits through genes. Mendel's experiments with pea plants gave the laws of dominance, segregation and independent assortment.

Q49 · Census 2011 and demography

Which state or UT recorded the highest decrease in sex ratio per Census 2011?

  1. Bihar
  2. Goa
  3. Lakshadweep
  4. Daman and Diu

Answer: D. Daman and Diu's sex ratio fell sharply from 710 to 618, the lowest in India, due to migrant male workers in industry.

Q50 · Schedules

The 10th Schedule of the Constitution deals with:

  1. Election disputes
  2. Disqualification on defection
  3. President's powers
  4. Salaries

Answer: B. The 52nd Amendment, 1985 added the anti-defection law. The 91st Amendment, 2003 removed the one-third split exception, keeping only two-thirds mergers. The Speaker or Chairman decides.

10th level · 19 Sep 2026, Shift 3, 05:00 PM

Q26 · Rules and terms

What are the standard dimensions of a basketball backboard?

  1. 1.80 m x 1.05 m
  2. 2.00 x 1.20 m
  3. 1.50 x 1.00 m
  4. 1.75 x 1.10 m

Answer: A. A FIBA backboard is 1.80 m wide and 1.05 m high, with the rim 3.05 m above the floor.

Q27 · Dance (classical and folk)

Which posture category, involving level changes to a medium stance, is used in Mohiniyattam?

  1. Chauka
  2. Mandala
  3. Tribhanga
  4. Samapada

Answer: B. The key marks Mandala, the half-sitting stance with knees bent outward. Chauka is Odissi's square stance and Tribhanga its three-bend pose.

Q28 · Five-Year Plans

The primary objective of the ____ was growth with stability and progressive achievement of self-reliance.

  1. First Plan
  2. Second Plan
  3. Fourth Plan
  4. Eighth Plan

Answer: C. The Fourth Plan (1969 to 1974) aimed at growth with stability and self-reliance. Its target of 5.7 percent fell short at about 3.3 percent.

Q29 · Appointments

Who became UPSC Chairman in May 2025, a former Defence Secretary?

  1. N.C. Shrivastava
  2. Atul Sinha
  3. Ajay Kumar
  4. Nilanjan Sanyal

Answer: C. Ajay Kumar, former Defence Secretary, became UPSC Chairman in May 2025. UPSC is a constitutional body under Articles 315 to 323.

Q30 · Appointments

Who is the first woman DG of the Railway Protection Force?

  1. Sonali Mishra
  2. Divya Sinha
  3. Priya Semwal
  4. Mitali Madhumita

Answer: A. Sonali Mishra, a 1993-batch IPS officer, became the first woman DG of RPF in 2025. RPF works under the Railway Ministry.

Q31 · Books, authors and literary awards

Who wrote the autobiography Wings of Fire?

  1. B.R. Ambedkar
  2. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
  3. Nelson Mandela
  4. Barack Obama

Answer: B. Wings of Fire (1999, with Arun Tiwari) is Dr Kalam's autobiography. Mandela wrote Long Walk to Freedom and Obama Dreams from My Father.

Q32 · Temple and monument architecture

Which feature distinguishes Dravidian style from Nagara?

  1. No boundary wall
  2. A water tank inside the temple enclosure
  3. Multiple vimanas
  4. Tower curving inward

Answer: B. Dravidian temples have high boundary walls, towering gopurams at the gates, a pyramidal vimana and often a tank inside the enclosure. Nagara temples have a curvilinear shikhara and usually no boundary walls.

Q33 · Earth, universe and motions

Which planet is the Red Planet?

  1. Venus
  2. Jupiter
  3. Mars
  4. Saturn

Answer: C. Mars looks red because of iron oxide on its surface. It has two moons, Phobos and Deimos, and the highest volcano, Olympus Mons. India's Mangalyaan reached Mars in 2014.

Q34 · Union, states and territory (Articles 1 to 4)

Which Article says laws under Articles 2 and 3 are not amendments under Article 368?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

Answer: C. Article 4 says such laws can amend the First and Fourth Schedules and are not constitutional amendments, so they pass by simple majority.

Q35 · Physics and chemistry

Why does Earth keep a nearly constant distance from the Sun in its elliptical orbit?

  1. Magnetic force
  2. Gravitational balance
  3. Air pressure
  4. Wind

Answer: B. The Sun's gravity balances Earth's orbital motion. Earth is closest at perihelion (about 3 January) and farthest at aphelion (about 4 July).

Q36 · Scientists and everyday technology

Why can smartphones run many apps at once?

  1. Battery
  2. Touchscreen
  3. Advanced processors and RAM
  4. External storage

Answer: C. Multi-core processors and RAM let a phone multitask. RAM is volatile working memory; storage is non-volatile.

Q37 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Community service under the BNS is primarily intended for:

  1. Terrorism
  2. First-time petty offences
  3. Organised crime
  4. Corporate tax

Answer: B. Community service is for minor offences like petty theft under Rs 5,000 by first-timers, public misconduct by drunk persons and defamation.

Q38 · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

What is the minimum group size for mob lynching provisions under the BNS?

  1. 2
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. Any

Answer: B. BNS 103(2) applies to murder by a group of five or more acting on grounds like race, caste, sex, language or belief.

Q39 · Rules and terms

Which chess term means no legal move while not in check?

  1. Checkmate
  2. Stalemate
  3. Gambit
  4. Fork

Answer: B. Stalemate is a draw. Gukesh became the youngest world champion in 2024, and Divya Deshmukh won the Women's World Cup in 2025.

Q40 · Rules and terms

In chess, what is a fork?

  1. Defence
  2. Simultaneous attack on two pieces
  3. Sacrifice
  4. Draw

Answer: B. A fork attacks two or more pieces at once, often by a knight. A gambit sacrifices material in the opening for advantage.

Q41 · Government schemes

The Price Support Scheme is implemented under which umbrella scheme?

  1. PM-KISAN
  2. PMFBY
  3. PM-AASHA
  4. Janaushadhi

Answer: C. PM-AASHA has three parts: Price Support Scheme (physical procurement of pulses, oilseeds and copra), Price Deficiency Payment and Private Procurement pilot.

Q42 · Government schemes

PM-SYM provides social security to which group?

  1. Organised workers
  2. Corporate staff
  3. Unorganised sector workers
  4. Government servants

Answer: C. PM-SYM covers unorganised workers aged 18 to 40 earning up to Rs 15,000 a month, with a Rs 3,000 monthly pension after 60.

Q43 · ISRO and space missions

What is the approximate lift-off mass of SSLV?

  1. 60 t
  2. 90 t
  3. 120 t
  4. 150 t

Answer: C. SSLV weighs about 120 tonnes, carries up to 500 kg to low Earth orbit and is a three-stage solid rocket with a liquid trim module. SSLV-D3 in 2024 launched EOS-08.

Q44 · Budget, fiscal policy and taxes

Which indirect tax aimed at one nation, one tax, one market?

  1. Corporate tax
  2. Income tax
  3. Wealth tax
  4. GST

Answer: D. GST began on 1 July 2017 via the 101st Amendment, which added Article 246A and the GST Council under Article 279A. GST 2.0 in 2025 cut slabs mainly to 5 and 18 percent.

Q45 · Biology

Where does most refraction occur in the human eye?

  1. Lens
  2. Outer surface of cornea
  3. Iris
  4. Ciliary muscles

Answer: B. Most bending of light happens at the cornea, at the air-cornea boundary. The lens fine-tunes focus by changing shape through ciliary muscles, which is accommodation.

Q46 · India and its neighbours (Chabahar, IMEC)

At which summit was IMEC announced?

  1. G7 2024
  2. G20 2023
  3. BRICS 2023
  4. Quad 2024

Answer: B. IMEC was announced at the G20 summit in New Delhi in September 2023 by India, the USA, Saudi Arabia, UAE, the EU, France, Germany and Italy.

Q47 · Reports and indices

Per the 2025 global AQI report, which region is most polluted?

  1. Europe
  2. North America
  3. South Asia
  4. Oceania

Answer: C. South Asia dominates the most polluted lists, with Chad, Bangladesh, Pakistan and India among the worst, and Byrnihat in Meghalaya as the most polluted city.

Q48 · Census 2011 and demography

The negative population growth of 1911-1921 demonstrates which principle?

  1. Failed transition
  2. Impact of sudden mortality shocks on population
  3. Fertility decline
  4. Replacement level

Answer: B. The 1918 influenza pandemic, famines and the First World War caused heavy deaths, so 1921 is called the Year of Great Divide. After it, population grew steadily.

Q49 · PSUs and disinvestment

What are Navratna companies?

  1. High-performing PSUs
  2. Private firms
  3. Foreign firms
  4. Loss-making PSUs

Answer: A. Navratna status (1997) lets PSUs invest up to Rs 1,000 crore without approval. Examples include HAL, BEL and Container Corporation.

Q50 · Agriculture and land use

What is the primary objective of MSP?

  1. Encourage imports
  2. Protect farmers from exploitation by speculators and middlemen
  3. Reduce food crops
  4. Promote cash crops

Answer: B. The government announces MSP for 22 crops on the CACP's advice, guaranteeing farmers a minimum price. MSP is set at least 1.5 times the A2+FL cost.

10th level · 21 Sep 2026, Shift 3, 05:00 PM

Q26 · Festivals

The Kharchi Puja festival is celebrated in which state?

  1. Assam
  2. Tripura
  3. Odisha
  4. West Bengal

Answer: B. Kharchi Puja is a week-long festival in Agartala, Tripura in July honouring 14 deities. Ker Puja follows it.

Q27 · Books, authors and literary awards

Which poetry book won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 in Dogri?

  1. Thakur Satsayie
  2. Shrestha Kabita
  3. Safar Jari Hai
  4. Maayaamanushyar

Answer: A. Thakur Satsayie won in Dogri. Safar Jaari Hai won in Urdu and Padapurana in Odia.

Q28 · Appointments

Who assumed charge as DGONA in March 2026?

  1. Divakar Jayant
  2. A.K. Saxena
  3. B.P. Singh
  4. R.K. Verma

Answer: C. B.P. Singh became Director General of Naval Armament. This fact was asked in three different shifts.

Q29 · Appointments

Who was appointed DG of DGCA in March 2026?

  1. Faiz Ahmed Kidwai
  2. Vir Vikram Yadav
  3. Sanjay Khanna
  4. Rajiv Bansal

Answer: B. Vir Vikram Yadav replaced Faiz Ahmed Kidwai. Sanjay Khanna became CMD of BPCL in another shift's question.

Q30 · Reports and indices

Which country overtook the UK to rank third in the Global Soft Power Index 2026?

  1. France
  2. China
  3. Japan
  4. Germany

Answer: C. Japan rose to third, behind the USA and China. The index is published by Brand Finance.

Q31 · Parliament, Executive and services

____ restricts discussion on the conduct of Judges in Parliament.

  1. 119
  2. 120
  3. 121
  4. 122

Answer: C. Article 121 permits such discussion only on a motion for the removal of a judge. Article 211 applies the same to state legislatures.

Q32 · Physical features and rivers of India

What is another name for the Outer Himalayas?

  1. Himadri
  2. Shiwalik
  3. Zanskar
  4. Karakoram

Answer: B. The Shiwaliks are the Outer Himalayas, made of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers. In Arunachal they are called the Dafla, Miri, Abor and Mishmi hills.

Q33 · Rules and terms

What is the standard width of lines on a badminton court?

  1. 20 mm
  2. 30 mm
  3. 40 mm
  4. 50 mm

Answer: C. Badminton court lines are 40 mm wide. The court is 13.4 m long, 6.1 m wide for doubles and 5.18 m for singles.

Q34 · Five-Year Plans

Which plan and economic model pair is correctly matched?

  1. First - Harrod Domar
  2. Second - Lewis
  3. Third - Solow
  4. Eighth - Mahalanobis

Answer: A. The First Plan (1951 to 1956, agriculture focus) used the Harrod-Domar model, the Second used the P.C. Mahalanobis model of heavy industry, and the Eighth followed the Manmohan (LPG) approach.

Q35 · Sculpture schools (Gandhara, Mathura)

In later Gandhara art, which materials replaced blue-grey schist?

  1. Mud, lime, stucco
  2. Marble, sandstone, granite
  3. Bronze, copper
  4. Terracotta, wood

Answer: A. Later Gandhara sculptors, especially at Taxila and Hadda, used stucco made of lime, mud and plaster.

Q36 · Parliament, Executive and services

Which feature ensures executive accountability by requiring confidence of the lower house?

  1. Presidential
  2. Parliamentary system
  3. Federal
  4. Judicial

Answer: B. In the parliamentary system, from Britain, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha under Article 75(3) and falls if it loses a no-confidence motion.

Q37 · Earth, universe and motions

Which factor primarily causes seasons?

  1. Earth-Sun distance
  2. Tilt of Earth's axis
  3. Rotation speed
  4. Ocean currents

Answer: B. The 23.5 degree tilt with revolution changes the Sun's angle and day length, causing seasons. Earth is actually closest to the Sun in January.

Q38 · Earth, universe and motions

Why does the Sun appear to rise in the east and set in the west?

  1. Sun moves around Earth
  2. Earth rotates west to east
  3. Moon
  4. Wind

Answer: B. Earth rotates from west to east, so the Sun and stars appear to move from east to west. Venus and Uranus rotate in the opposite direction.

Q39 · Scientists and everyday technology

What is the significance of technology in transport?

  1. Slows movement
  2. Improves efficiency
  3. Limits travel
  4. Reduces connectivity

Answer: B. Better transport technology cuts travel time and cost, linking markets and boosting growth. Examples include the Vande Bharat trains and dedicated freight corridors.

Q40 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

Which best defines the Quad?

  1. Military alliance like NATO
  2. Informal strategic grouping of India, USA, Japan and Australia
  3. ASEAN bloc
  4. UN body

Answer: B. The Quad is an informal Indo-Pacific dialogue without a treaty. It works on vaccines, critical technology and maritime awareness.

Q41 · Atmosphere, climate and oceans

During a strong La Nina year, what occurs regarding the Indian monsoon?

  1. Eastern thermocline deepens causing drought
  2. Enhanced convection over the Western Pacific strengthens the Indian monsoon
  3. Trade winds weaken
  4. Air sinks over the maritime continent

Answer: B. In La Nina, stronger trade winds push warm water west, increasing convection over Indonesia and strengthening the Walker circulation, which usually brings good Indian monsoons. El Nino has the opposite effect.

Q42 · Climate change and agreements

What is the primary legal implication of the CBDR-RC principle?

  1. Equal cuts by all
  2. Developed nations must lead due to historical emissions and greater resources
  3. Developing nations exempt
  4. Only islands

Answer: B. CBDR-RC, from the 1992 Rio UNFCCC, says all nations share responsibility but developed countries must lead. The Paris Agreement of 2015 uses NDCs.

Q43 · Government schemes

What is the unique feature of Component-A of PM-KUSUM?

  1. Farmers set up solar plants on barren land and sell power to DISCOMs at a feed-in tariff
  2. 90% central cost
  3. Only small farmers
  4. Off-grid only

Answer: A. Component A covers decentralised grid-connected solar plants up to 2 MW on farmland. Component B covers standalone solar pumps, and Component C covers solarising grid pumps.

Q44 · Government schemes

What is the primary objective of Lighthouse Projects under GHTC-India?

  1. Mud houses
  2. Using six global innovative technologies to build disaster-resilient houses quickly
  3. Free housing
  4. Relocation

Answer: B. Under PMAY-Urban, six Lighthouse Projects were built in Indore, Rajkot, Chennai, Ranchi, Agartala and Lucknow, each using a different modern technology.

Q45 · Biology

Cuscuta (amar-bel) shows which type of nutrition?

  1. Saprophytic
  2. Holozoic
  3. Parasitic
  4. Autotrophic

Answer: C. Cuscuta is a leafless, yellow parasitic plant that takes food from its host through haustoria. Fungi are saprophytes, and humans have holozoic nutrition.

Q46 · PSUs and disinvestment

Privatising PSUs by selling part of their equity to the public is called:

  1. Outsourcing
  2. Globalisation
  3. Disinvestment
  4. Deregulation

Answer: C. The NCERT defines disinvestment as selling part of PSU equity to the public to improve financial discipline and modernisation.

Q47 · Agriculture and land use

Which statement about Tur cultivation is correct?

  1. Grown on highly fertile land
  2. Maharashtra produces one-third of the total
  3. 10% of cropped area
  4. Needs intensive irrigation

Answer: B. Tur (arhar or red gram) is a dryland pulse, grown on marginal soils and mixed with other crops. Maharashtra produces about a third of India's output.

Q48 · Census 2011 and demography

The average annual growth rate of persons per Census 2011 was:

  1. 1.78
  2. 1.88
  3. 1.63
  4. 1.95

Answer: C. The key gives 1.63 here, while another shift used 1.64; both refer to the 2001 to 2011 exponential rate. Either way it fell from 1.97 in the previous decade.

Q49 · Schedules

Which Schedule contains Forms of Oaths or Affirmations?

  1. First
  2. Second
  3. Third
  4. Fourth

Answer: C. The Third Schedule has oaths for ministers, MPs, MLAs, judges and the CAG. The President's oath is in Article 60, not this schedule.

Q50 · Fundamental Rights, DPSP and UCC

Which article deals with the abolition of titles?

  1. 14
  2. 18
  3. 21
  4. 23

Answer: B. Article 18 abolishes titles; military and academic distinctions are exempt.

10th level · 22 Sep 2026, Shift 3, 05:00 PM

Q26 · Books, authors and literary awards

Which book by Tridib Kumar Chattopadhyay won the Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2025 in Bengali?

  1. Kirur Kirti
  2. Ekhono Gaye Kanta
  3. Akashchhoya Manush
  4. Khendir Katha

Answer: B. Tridib Kumar Chattopadhyay won for Ekhono Gaye Kanta Daye, a story collection. Asked in two shifts.

Q27 · Appointments

In March 2026, B.P. Singh was appointed as:

  1. DG Naval Armament
  2. DG Armed Services
  3. DG Civil Aviation
  4. DG Cyber Security

Answer: A. B.P. Singh became Director General of Naval Armament (DGONA) at Naval HQ.

Q28 · Appointments

Narendra Bhooshan became Secretary of which department in April 2026?

  1. Land Resources
  2. Heavy Industries
  3. Space
  4. Steel

Answer: A. He became Secretary of the Department of Land Resources, which runs schemes such as the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme.

Q29 · Reports and indices

Which country has been the most peaceful since 2008 per the Global Peace Index 2025?

  1. Ireland
  2. New Zealand
  3. Switzerland
  4. Iceland

Answer: D. Iceland has topped the GPI since 2008. The GPI is published by the Institute for Economics and Peace.

Q30 · Festivals

Chapchar Kut is a spring festival of which state?

  1. Mizoram
  2. Nagaland
  3. Manipur
  4. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: A. Chapchar Kut is celebrated in March after jhum clearing, featuring the Cheraw bamboo dance. Mim Kut and Pawl Kut are other Mizo festivals.

Q31 · Parliament, Executive and services

Article ____ relates to the language used in Parliament.

  1. 118
  2. 120
  3. 210
  4. 343

Answer: B. Article 120 deals with language in Parliament, and Article 210 with language in state legislatures. Article 343 makes Hindi in Devanagari the official language of the Union.

Q32 · Physical features and rivers of India

Where does the Indus River rise?

  1. Glaciers of the Kailash range
  2. Nanda Devi
  3. Kashmir
  4. Punjab

Answer: A. The Indus rises near Bokhar Chu glacier in the Kailash range in Tibet, enters India in Ladakh and flows into Pakistan. Its tributaries include the Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej.

Q33 · Rules and terms

What is the standard shape of a basketball?

  1. Oval
  2. Circular
  3. Spherical
  4. Cylindrical

Answer: C. A basketball is spherical; size 7 for men's games measures about 75 cm around. A rugby ball is oval.

Q34 · Five-Year Plans

Which plan had a 5.2% target and 5.7% actual growth?

  1. Fourth
  2. Fifth
  3. Sixth
  4. Eighth

Answer: C. The Sixth Plan (1980 to 1985) beat its 5.2 percent target with 5.7 percent. This fact was asked in four different shifts.

Q35 · Temple and monument architecture

St. Philomena's Church in Mysore is an example of which style?

  1. Romanesque
  2. Neo-Gothic
  3. Indo-Islamic
  4. Palladian

Answer: B. St. Philomena's (1936) is modelled on Cologne Cathedral, with twin spires and pointed arches. St. Paul's Cathedral in Kolkata is also Gothic Revival.

Q36 · Physics and chemistry

Which force keeps Earth in orbit around the Sun?

  1. Air pressure
  2. Gravitational force
  3. Ocean currents
  4. Magnetic waves

Answer: B. Gravity provides the centripetal force needed for orbital motion. Without it, Earth would move in a straight line, as Newton's first law says.

Q37 · Physics and chemistry

Which phenomenon explains bending of light through the atmosphere?

  1. Reflection
  2. Refraction
  3. Diffusion
  4. Absorption

Answer: B. Atmospheric refraction causes stars to twinkle and lets us see the Sun about 2 minutes before actual sunrise and after sunset.

Q38 · Technology and research facilities

What is the importance of satellites in monitoring climate change?

  1. Local
  2. Global observation
  3. Limited
  4. None

Answer: B. Satellites like Oceansat, INSAT-3D and the Copernicus series track temperature, ice cover, forests and greenhouse gases across the globe.

Q39 · Climate change and agreements

In the Great Acceleration of the Anthropocene, which indicator surged most after 1950?

  1. Forest cover
  2. Global primary energy use and atmospheric CO2
  3. Deep-sea biodiversity
  4. Volcanic eruptions

Answer: B. After 1950, energy use, CO2, population, GDP and fertiliser use rose sharply. Scientists call this the Great Acceleration.

Q40 · Government schemes

PM-DevINE (Budget 2022-23) targets which region?

  1. Islands
  2. North Eastern Region infrastructure and social development
  3. Urban slums
  4. Border villages

Answer: B. PM-DevINE is a central sector scheme implemented by the Ministry of DoNER through the North Eastern Council. Border villages come under the Vibrant Villages Programme.

Q41 · Government schemes

What is the main aim of Component A of PM-KUSUM?

  1. Small solar plants
  2. Electric tractors
  3. Hydro dams
  4. Wind energy

Answer: A. Component A sets up decentralised solar plants of up to 2 MW on barren or fallow farmland.

Q42 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

Which industry still requires industrial licensing?

  1. Textiles
  2. Automobiles
  3. Hazardous chemicals
  4. Food processing

Answer: C. After 1991 licensing is needed only for alcohol, tobacco products, electronic aerospace and defence equipment, industrial explosives and hazardous chemicals.

Q43 · Agriculture and land use

Which crop and primary production area is correctly matched?

  1. Jowar - Maharashtra
  2. Bajra - West Bengal
  3. Wheat - Andhra Pradesh
  4. Maize - Kerala

Answer: A. Maharashtra is the top jowar producer, Rajasthan leads in bajra, Uttar Pradesh in wheat and Karnataka in maize.

Q44 · Biology

Who discovered the basic rules of inheritance using pea plants?

  1. Darwin
  2. Gregor Mendel
  3. Stanley Miller
  4. Harold Urey

Answer: B. Gregor Mendel, the father of genetics, studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants. Miller and Urey simulated the origin of life in 1953.

Q45 · Census 2011 and demography

From 2001 to 2011, what was the decline in India's average annual growth rate?

  1. 0.15%
  2. 0.32%
  3. 0.23%
  4. 0.51%

Answer: B. The annual growth rate fell from 1.97 percent to about 1.64 percent, a decline of about 0.32 to 0.33 percentage points.

Q46 · Schedules

Which Schedule has provisions on the President and Governors?

  1. First
  2. Second
  3. Third
  4. Fourth

Answer: B. The Second Schedule covers emoluments and allowances of the President, Governors, Speakers, judges and the CAG.

Q47 · India and its neighbours (Chabahar, IMEC)

The Shahid Beheshti Terminal is located at which port?

  1. Gwadar
  2. Sittwe
  3. Chabahar
  4. Colombo

Answer: C. India Ports Global Limited signed a 10-year deal in May 2024 to run the terminal at Chabahar. Sittwe in Myanmar is part of the Kaladan project.

Q48 · Union, states and territory (Articles 1 to 4)

Admission or establishment of new States is provided in:

  1. Article 1
  2. Article 2
  3. Article 3
  4. Article 4

Answer: B. Article 2 lets Parliament admit or establish new states, as with Sikkim in 1975. Article 3 covers formation of states and changing boundaries.

Q49 · Fundamental Rights, DPSP and UCC

Which Articles relate to the Right to Freedom of Religion?

  1. 12 to 16
  2. 14 to 18
  3. 21 to 25
  4. 25 to 28

Answer: D. Articles 25 to 28 cover religious freedom, right to equality is 14 to 18, freedom is 19 to 22, exploitation is 23 and 24, and cultural and educational rights are 29 and 30.

Q50 · Forests, wildlife and biodiversity

Which Meghalaya district saw the discovery of a new burrowing reed snake?

  1. West Khasi Hills
  2. West Garo Hills
  3. Ri-Bhoi
  4. East Garo Hills

Answer: B. The key marks West Garo Hills. North-East India keeps yielding new reptile and amphibian species.

10th level · 23 Sep 2026, Shift 3, 05:00 PM

Q26 · Festivals

Which festival-state pair is correctly matched?

  1. Chapchar Kut - Mizoram
  2. Hornbill - Assam
  3. Losar - Tamil Nadu
  4. Pongal - Rajasthan

Answer: A. Chapchar Kut is from Mizoram. Hornbill is from Nagaland, Losar (Tibetan New Year) from Ladakh, Sikkim and Arunachal, and Pongal from Tamil Nadu.

Q27 · Modern India

Which was first introduced under the Act of 1892?

  1. Direct elections
  2. Budget discussion
  3. Bicameral legislature
  4. Responsible ministries

Answer: B. The Indian Councils Act, 1892 allowed members to discuss the budget and ask questions, and introduced indirect election in limited form. Bicameralism came in 1919, and responsible ministries in provinces in 1935.

Q28 · Modern India

Which initiative was explicitly emphasised by Wood's Despatch of 1854?

  1. Military training
  2. Female education
  3. Religious education
  4. Industrial crafts

Answer: B. Wood's Despatch promoted female education, grants-in-aid, a department of education in each province, vernacular primary schools and universities at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras (1857).

Q29 · Interior of Earth and geomorphology

Avalanches are most likely when:

  1. Snow melts rapidly on slopes
  2. Glaciers move slowly
  3. Rivers overflow
  4. Rocks erode

Answer: A. Avalanches occur when snow on steep slopes becomes unstable from rapid melting, fresh heavy snowfall or warming. J&K, Himachal and Uttarakhand are prone.

Q30 · Ancient India

Which three kingdoms emerged in the south around 400 BCE?

  1. Maurya, Gupta, Kushan
  2. Cholas, Cheras and Pandyas
  3. Vatsa, Kuru, Chedi
  4. Pallava, Chalukya, Rashtrakuta

Answer: B. The Sangam texts and Ashoka's inscriptions mention the three Tamil kingdoms: Cholas (Uraiyur, Puhar), Cheras (Vanji) and Pandyas (Madurai).

Q31 · Appointments

Who was appointed RBI Executive Director in July 2025 to oversee the Department of Regulation?

  1. Kesavan Ramachandran
  2. Rohit Jain
  3. Rabi Sankar
  4. Vikram Sinha

Answer: A. Kesavan Ramachandran became RBI Executive Director. The RBI Governor is Sanjay Malhotra, from December 2024.

Q32 · Temple and monument architecture

A stepped water tank called surya-kund with miniature temples on its steps is a feature of which style?

  1. Khajuraho
  2. Odisha
  3. Solanki (Maru-Gurjara)
  4. Pala

Answer: C. The Sun Temple at Modhera, Gujarat, built by Solanki king Bhima I in 1026, has the famous Surya Kund. Konark's Sun Temple in Odisha is shaped as a chariot.

Q33 · Festivals

Which Sikh festival at Muktsar honours the Chalis Mukte (Forty Martyrs)?

  1. Hola Mohalla
  2. Vaisakhi
  3. Gurpurab
  4. Maghi

Answer: D. Maghi, in January, marks the Battle of Khidrana (1705), where 40 Sikhs who had earlier deserted Guru Gobind Singh died fighting the Mughal forces of Wazir Khan. Hola Mohalla is at Anandpur Sahib.

Q34 · Earth, universe and motions

What causes the apparent shift of constellations over seasons?

  1. Rotation only
  2. Earth's revolution around the Sun
  3. Moon's phases
  4. Solar radiation

Answer: B. As Earth revolves, the night side faces different parts of space, so we see different constellations in different seasons. Nightly movement is due to rotation.

Q35 · Persons in news

Which CJI headed the bench that upheld the abrogation of Article 370?

  1. D.Y. Chandrachud
  2. N.V. Ramana
  3. U.U. Lalit
  4. Ranjan Gogoi

Answer: A. In December 2023, a five-judge bench led by CJI D.Y. Chandrachud upheld the abrogation, calling Article 370 a temporary provision.

Q36 · Government schemes

How many districts are covered under PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana?

  1. 50
  2. 70
  3. 100
  4. 150

Answer: C. PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana, announced in Budget 2025-26 and launched in 2025, targets 100 low-productivity agricultural districts by converging 36 schemes.

Q37 · Agriculture and land use

Land left uncultivated for more than five years is classified as:

  1. Current Fallow
  2. Culturable Wasteland
  3. Barren Land
  4. Permanent Pasture

Answer: B. Current fallow is uncultivated for one year or less, other fallow for one to five years, and culturable wasteland for more than five years.

Q38 · Census 2011 and demography

Which state or UT is home to the Jarawa and Sentinelese?

  1. Andaman and Nicobar
  2. Daman and Diu
  3. Jharkhand
  4. Manipur

Answer: A. The Jarawas, Sentinelese, Great Andamanese and Onge live in the Andamans, and the Shompen in Great Nicobar. All are Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.

Q39 · Fundamental Rights, DPSP and UCC

Which Articles give the Right to Equality?

  1. 12 to 16
  2. 14 to 18
  3. 19 to 22
  4. 21 to 25

Answer: B. Article 14 gives equality before law, 15 bars discrimination, 16 gives equal job opportunity, 17 abolishes untouchability and 18 abolishes titles.

Q40 · Physical features and rivers of India

Which river was in spate, flooding Hyderabad in 2025?

  1. Musi
  2. Krishna
  3. Godavari
  4. Tungabhadra

Answer: A. The Musi, a Krishna tributary, flows through Hyderabad. Heavy rain in September 2025 raised its levels and flooded low-lying areas.

Q41 · Forests, wildlife and biodiversity

Which species was the focus of India's first complete mitochondrial genome analysis?

  1. Malabar Giant Squirrel
  2. Madras Hedgehog
  3. Nilgiri Tahr
  4. Indian Pangolin

Answer: B. The key marks the Madras (bare-bellied) hedgehog, a species endemic to South India.

Q42 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

Which BRICS country is largest by area?

  1. Brazil
  2. China
  3. India
  4. Russia

Answer: D. Russia is the world's largest country at about 17.1 million sq km. India is 7th in area.

Q43 · Census 2011 and demography

If India fails to give education and jobs to its working-age population, the demographic dividend will:

  1. Increase
  2. Turn into a demographic burden
  3. Reduce dependency
  4. Stabilise population

Answer: B. A young population helps growth only if it is skilled and employed; otherwise unemployment and social strain follow.

Q44 · Biology

Which taxonomic category is used for plants instead of Phylum?

  1. Order
  2. Class
  3. Division
  4. Family

Answer: C. Plants are grouped into Divisions instead of Phyla. The hierarchy is Kingdom, Division or Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus and Species.

Q45 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

Which sector benefited most from LPG reforms?

  1. Services
  2. Mining
  3. Forestry
  4. Agriculture

Answer: A. Services such as IT, finance and telecom grew fastest after 1991 and now make up over half of GVA. Agriculture growth slowed.

Q46 · Five-Year Plans

The objective of price control policies was:

  1. Prevent inflation
  2. Reduce imports
  3. Encourage exports
  4. Increase profits

Answer: A. Price controls like the Essential Commodities Act and administered prices protect consumers from inflation and hoarding.

Q47 · Government schemes

PM Jan Dhan Yojana primarily aims at:

  1. Employment
  2. Financial inclusion
  3. Skills
  4. Housing

Answer: B. PMJDY (2014) offers zero-balance accounts, RuPay cards with accident insurance and overdraft facilities. Over 55 crore accounts have been opened.

Q48 · Biology

Which nutrient is mainly responsible for muscle repair?

  1. Carbohydrates
  2. Proteins
  3. Fats
  4. Vitamins

Answer: B. Proteins, made of amino acids, are body-building foods for growth and repair. Their deficiency causes kwashiorkor and marasmus.

Q49 · Agriculture and land use

Reducing water flow from 18-20 litres to 20-80 drops per minute mainly indicates:

  1. Evaporation losses
  2. Deliberate regulation for efficient irrigation
  3. Leaks
  4. Seasonal shortage

Answer: B. This is Meghalaya's bamboo drip irrigation system, over 200 years old, where stream water is channelled through bamboo pipes and reduced to drops at plant roots.

Q50 · Judiciary, doctrines and landmark cases

The final authority to interpret the Constitution rests with:

  1. Law Commission
  2. Parliament
  3. President
  4. Supreme Court

Answer: D. The Supreme Court is the guardian and final interpreter of the Constitution, through judicial review and Article 141, which makes its law binding on all courts.

10th level · 24 Sep 2026, Shift 3, 05:00 PM

Q26 · Books, authors and literary awards

In which language was Mainaahantar Padya by Surendra Mohan Das selected for the Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2025?

  1. Bengali
  2. Assamese
  3. Maithili
  4. Manipuri

Answer: B. Surendra Mohan Das won in Assamese.

Q27 · Appointments

Who was appointed Vice Chief of the Army Staff in April 2026?

  1. Manoj Pande
  2. Dhiraj Seth
  3. Anil Chauhan
  4. Raj Shukla

Answer: B. Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth became VCOAS. General Anil Chauhan is the Chief of Defence Staff.

Q28 · Appointments

Who became CMD of BPCL in April 2026?

  1. Sanjay Khanna
  2. Ramesh Gupta
  3. Anil Mehta
  4. Rajesh Verma

Answer: A. Sanjay Khanna became Chairman and Managing Director of Bharat Petroleum, a Maharatna oil marketing company.

Q29 · Reports and indices

Which country was second most affected by terrorism in the GTI 2026?

  1. Pakistan
  2. Syria
  3. Burkina Faso
  4. Afghanistan

Answer: C. Burkina Faso ranked second in the 2026 GTI. This fact was asked in three shifts.

Q30 · Judiciary, doctrines and landmark cases

An appeal under Article 133 lies from the ____ to the Supreme Court.

  1. District Court
  2. Sessions Court
  3. High Court
  4. Tribunal

Answer: C. Articles 132 to 134 cover appeals from High Courts on certification. Article 134A covers the certificate itself.

Q31 · Physical features and rivers of India

What is the main rock type in the Deccan Trap?

  1. Sedimentary
  2. Igneous
  3. Limestone
  4. Metamorphic

Answer: B. The Deccan Trap was formed by basalt lava flows about 66 million years ago. Weathered basalt forms black regur soil, ideal for cotton.

Q32 · Five-Year Plans

What were the Sixth Plan's target and actual growth rates?

  1. 4.6 and 5.2
  2. 5.0 and 5.4
  3. 5.2 and 5.7
  4. 6.0 and 5.2

Answer: C. Target 5.2 percent, actual 5.7 percent. Most plans missed targets, but the Sixth and Eighth beat theirs.

Q33 · Sculpture schools (Gandhara, Mathura)

The Chaturmukha Shiva Linga of the Kushana period belongs to which school?

  1. Gupta
  2. Mathura
  3. Amaravati
  4. Gandhara

Answer: B. Mathura sculptors made Brahmanical images too, including the four-faced Shiva linga, along with Buddhist and Jain works.

Q34 · Modern India

Who revived public Ganesh Chaturthi in 1893 to build nationalism?

  1. Gandhi
  2. Patel
  3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  4. Lala Lajpat Rai

Answer: C. Tilak started public Ganeshotsav in 1893 and Shivaji Jayanti in 1895. He ran the newspapers Kesari (Marathi) and Maratha (English).

Q35 · Earth, universe and motions

What explains solar and lunar eclipses?

  1. Solar changes
  2. Alignment of Sun, Earth and Moon
  3. Rotation speed
  4. Magnetic disturbance

Answer: B. A solar eclipse happens on a new moon when the Moon is between the Sun and Earth. A lunar eclipse happens on a full moon when Earth is between them.

Q36 · Earth, universe and motions

Which movement causes one complete year and seasons?

  1. Rotation
  2. Revolution around the Sun
  3. Tidal
  4. Magnetic

Answer: B. One revolution takes 365 days and about 6 hours, so a leap year is added every four years.

Q37 · Technology and research facilities

Which technology monitors crops and soil moisture using satellite data?

  1. Television
  2. Remote sensing
  3. Radio
  4. Printing

Answer: B. Remote sensing collects data from satellites without contact. India's IRS series and NRSC Hyderabad support crop forecasting through programmes like FASAL.

Q38 · Rules and terms

Which is a fault in badminton per BWF laws?

  1. Shuttle hit twice in succession by the same player
  2. Shuttle touches net and falls in
  3. Feet within court
  4. Hit below waist in smash

Answer: A. Hitting the shuttle twice is a fault. A net cord that falls in is legal. Serves must be hit below 1.15 m from the court surface.

Q39 · Government schemes

In which year was PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana launched?

  1. 2023
  2. 2024
  3. 2025
  4. 2026

Answer: C. Announced in Budget 2025-26, it was launched in October 2025 for 100 districts.

Q40 · Government schemes

What is the guaranteed monthly pension under PM-SYM after 60?

  1. Rs 2,000
  2. Rs 2,500
  3. Rs 3,000
  4. Rs 3,500

Answer: C. PM-SYM gives Rs 3,000 a month. Atal Pension Yojana gives Rs 1,000 to 5,000 based on contribution.

Q41 · Biology

Where does glucose break down into pyruvate in the cell?

  1. Nucleus
  2. Mitochondria
  3. Cytoplasm
  4. Ribosome

Answer: C. Glycolysis (EMP pathway) happens in the cytoplasm and gives 2 pyruvate. In aerobic respiration, pyruvate then enters mitochondria for the Krebs cycle.

Q42 · 1991 reforms (LPG)

Which sector primarily drove India's GDP growth after 1991?

  1. Agriculture
  2. Industry
  3. Service sector
  4. Manufacturing

Answer: C. Services grew fastest, led by IT, telecom, banking and trade. The NCERT notes that growth was service-led while agriculture and industry lagged.

Q43 · Census 2011 and demography

Which rural settlement type is dispersed?

  1. Isolated huts
  2. Large villages
  3. Linear rows
  4. Circular huts

Answer: A. Dispersed settlements have isolated huts or hamlets, common in hilly, forested or arid areas like Meghalaya and Uttarakhand. Compact settlements are found in fertile plains.

Q44 · Forests, wildlife and biodiversity

The black panther is set to return after 40 years to which zoo?

  1. Nehru Zoo, Hyderabad
  2. Indira Gandhi Zoological Park, Visakhapatnam
  3. Phawngpui
  4. Sariska

Answer: B. The key marks Indira Gandhi Zoological Park in Visakhapatnam. A black panther is a melanistic leopard.

Q45 · Forests, wildlife and biodiversity

The Sirkeer Malkoha, recently reported, is typically found in the plains of which state?

  1. Uttarakhand
  2. Arunachal Pradesh
  3. Himachal Pradesh
  4. Sikkim

Answer: A. The Sirkeer Malkoha is a ground-dwelling cuckoo of dry scrub. It was reported from the plains of Uttarakhand.

Q46 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

Which nation hosted the fourth in-person Quad Leaders' Summit in September 2024?

  1. India
  2. Japan
  3. Australia
  4. USA

Answer: D. President Biden hosted it at Wilmington, Delaware in September 2024; the Quad Cancer Moonshot was announced there.

Q47 · Fundamental Rights, DPSP and UCC

Which Articles relate to the Right to Freedom?

  1. 12 to 16
  2. 14 to 18
  3. 19 to 22
  4. 21 to 25

Answer: C. Article 19 gives six freedoms, 20 protects against conviction, 21 protects life and liberty, 21A gives education, and 22 protects against arbitrary arrest.

Q48 · Minerals and industries

Which property of mica makes it hard to replace in high-voltage equipment?

  1. Thin sheets
  2. Resistance to electrical flow with minimal power loss
  3. Colours
  4. Plateau occurrence

Answer: B. Mica has excellent dielectric strength and low power loss, so it is used as an insulator in electrical and electronic equipment.

Q49 · Amendments

Which amendment added Fundamental Duties?

  1. 24th
  2. 42nd
  3. 44th
  4. 86th

Answer: B. The 42nd Amendment (1976), based on the Swaran Singh Committee, added 10 duties in Article 51A. The 86th (2002) added the 11th duty, for parents to educate children aged 6 to 14.

Q50 · Schedules

Which schedule provides for tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram?

  1. Ninth
  2. Seventh
  3. Sixth
  4. Fifth

Answer: C. The Sixth Schedule creates Autonomous District Councils in those four states. The Fifth Schedule covers scheduled areas in other states.

10th level · 25 Sep 2026, Shift 3, 05:00 PM

Q26 · Reports and indices

GTI 2026: which pair is correctly matched?

  1. Pakistan - 3rd
  2. Nigeria - 1st
  3. Burkina Faso - 2nd
  4. Iraq - 8th

Answer: C. Burkina Faso ranked 2nd and Israel 10th in GTI 2026. Asked in three shifts.

Q27 · Parliament, Executive and services

Article ____ states courts cannot question the validity of Parliament's proceedings.

  1. 120
  2. 121
  3. 122
  4. 123

Answer: C. Article 122 bars courts from questioning Parliament's proceedings on grounds of irregular procedure. Article 123 is the President's ordinance power.

Q28 · Temple and monument architecture

Which element is essential in a Panchayatana temple layout?

  1. Single shrine
  2. Five shrines
  3. Seven storeys
  4. Circular hall

Answer: B. A Panchayatana temple has a main shrine surrounded by four subsidiary shrines at the corners. The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh (Gupta period) is an early example.

Q29 · Ancient India

Abhigyan Shakuntalam was written by:

  1. Tulsidas
  2. Kalidasa
  3. Valmiki
  4. Ved Vyas

Answer: B. Kalidasa, a gem of Chandragupta II's court, wrote Abhijnanasakuntalam, Malavikagnimitram, Meghaduta and Raghuvamsha.

Q30 · Festivals

Sarhul, involving worship of the Sal tree by Munda, Oraon and Ho tribes, is observed in which state?

  1. Chhattisgarh
  2. Odisha
  3. Jharkhand
  4. Madhya Pradesh

Answer: C. Sarhul is Jharkhand's spring and new year festival. Karma and Sohrai are also major Jharkhand tribal festivals.

Q31 · Atmosphere, climate and oceans

Why do regions experience varying climates despite the same Sun?

  1. Equal sunlight
  2. Variation in sunlight angle
  3. Uniform pressure
  4. Constant winds

Answer: B. Near the equator sunlight is direct and concentrated; near the poles it is slanting and spread out, so latitude is the main control of temperature.

Q32 · Interior of Earth and geomorphology

Which process wears away Earth's surface through wind, water and ice?

  1. Erosion
  2. Rotation
  3. Revolution
  4. Sedimentation

Answer: A. Erosion removes and transports material, while weathering breaks rock in place. Deposition (sedimentation) builds landforms like deltas.

Q33 · Technology and research facilities

Why is space technology important in disaster management?

  1. No relevance
  2. Provides real-time monitoring
  3. Limited
  4. Delays

Answer: B. Satellites track cyclones, floods and fires in real time. INSAT-3D/3DR and Oceansat support IMD and INCOIS forecasts.

Q34 · Persons in news

Who was the first woman Permanent Representative of India to the UN?

  1. Nirupama Rao
  2. Ruchira Kamboj
  3. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
  4. Hansa Mehta

Answer: B. Ruchira Kamboj (2022 to 2024) was the first woman PR at the UN in New York. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was the first woman President of the UN General Assembly (1953).

Q35 · Persons in news

Which CAG previously served as Lieutenant Governor of J&K?

  1. Vinod Rai
  2. Rajiv Mehrishi
  3. Girish Chandra Murmu
  4. Shashi Kant Sharma

Answer: C. G.C. Murmu was the first LG of J&K UT (2019 to 2020) before becoming CAG. The CAG is appointed under Article 148 for six years or until 65.

Q36 · Rules and terms

What is the maximum tailwind allowed for a 100 m record?

  1. 1.0 m/s
  2. 2.0 m/s
  3. 3.5 m/s
  4. 5.0 m/s

Answer: B. Wind assistance above plus 2.0 m/s makes a sprint or long jump mark ineligible for records. Usain Bolt holds the 100 m world record of 9.58 seconds.

Q37 · Government schemes

In which year was PM-SETU launched?

  1. 2022
  2. 2023
  3. 2024
  4. 2025

Answer: D. PM-SETU, launched in 2025, upgrades 1,000 government ITIs in a hub-and-spoke model with industry partnership.

Q38 · Government schemes

Which institutions co-finance PM-SETU?

  1. WTO and WB
  2. World Bank and Asian Development Bank
  3. RBI and ADB
  4. UNDP and WB

Answer: B. PM-SETU is co-financed by the World Bank and ADB, with funding shared among the Centre, states and industry.

Q39 · BRICS, Quad, BIMSTEC and other groupings

Before the WTO in 1995, which organisation administered multilateral trade agreements?

  1. IMF
  2. IBRD
  3. GATT
  4. WHO

Answer: C. GATT, signed in 1947 and in force in 1948, ran eight rounds of trade talks ending with the Uruguay Round (1986 to 1994), which created the WTO.

Q40 · Census 2011 and demography

What was the Muslim sex ratio in India per Census 2011?

  1. 939
  2. 951
  3. 903
  4. 1023

Answer: B. Religion-wise sex ratios in 2011: Christians 1,023 (highest), Muslims 951, Hindus 939 and Sikhs 903 (lowest).

Q41 · Forests, wildlife and biodiversity

Under Project Cheetah, Jwala, the Namibian cheetah, was originally named:

  1. Siyaya
  2. Savanna
  3. Shumba
  4. Kalahari

Answer: A. Jwala was earlier called Siyaya. Project Cheetah began in 2022 at Kuno National Park, Madhya Pradesh; Gandhi Sagar is the second site.

Q42 · GI tags and important days

Which day coincided with laying the foundation stone of the Petroglyph Conservation Park?

  1. World Environment Day
  2. World Heritage Day
  3. Cultural Diversity Day
  4. Archaeology Day

Answer: B. World Heritage Day, the International Day for Monuments and Sites, is on 18 April. World Environment Day is on 5 June.

Q43 · India and its neighbours (Chabahar, IMEC)

Which country was the Guest Country at the 7th NSA-level meeting of the Colombo Security Conclave in 2025?

  1. Singapore
  2. Malaysia
  3. Oman
  4. Vietnam

Answer: B. The CSC members are India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Mauritius and Bangladesh, with Seychelles as observer, and Malaysia attended as guest.

Q44 · Schedules

Which is covered under the Eighth Schedule?

  1. Union-state powers
  2. Lok Sabha seats
  3. Rajya Sabha seats
  4. Official languages

Answer: D. The Eighth Schedule lists 22 languages; originally there were 14. Sindhi was added in 1967, Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in 1992, and Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali in 2003.

Q45 · Biology

What is the taxonomic order of the housefly?

  1. Insecta
  2. Muscidae
  3. Diptera
  4. Arthropoda

Answer: C. The housefly belongs to Phylum Arthropoda, Class Insecta, Order Diptera (two wings), Family Muscidae and Genus Musca.

Q46 · Five-Year Plans

Which model was adopted for the Second Five-Year Plan?

  1. Keynesian
  2. Solow
  3. Harrod-Domar
  4. Mahalanobis

Answer: D. The Second Plan (1956 to 1961) followed P.C. Mahalanobis's model of rapid industrialisation with heavy industries; steel plants at Bhilai, Durgapur and Rourkela were set up.

Q47 · Climate change and agreements

The adoption of Agenda 21 at the Rio Earth Summit (1992) reflected:

  1. Global commitment to link environment with development
  2. Forests under international ownership
  3. One global law
  4. Growth over environment

Answer: A. Agenda 21 is a non-binding action plan for sustainable development in the 21st century. Rio also produced the UNFCCC, the CBD and the Rio Declaration.

Q48 · Agriculture and land use

Jhumming is associated with which agricultural practice?

  1. Terrace farming
  2. Plantation
  3. Slash-and-burn shifting cultivation in the North-East
  4. Commercial wheat

Answer: C. Jhum is slash-and-burn farming in North-East India. It is called Podu in Andhra Pradesh, Bewar in Madhya Pradesh, Milpa in Mexico and Ladang in Malaysia.

Q49 · Schedules

Which schedule deals with anti-defection?

  1. Eighth
  2. Ninth
  3. Tenth
  4. Twelfth

Answer: C. The Tenth Schedule came in with the 52nd Amendment (1985). The Kihoto Hollohan case (1992) upheld it but subjected the Speaker's decision to judicial review.

Q50 · Parliament, Executive and services

Parliament can create a new all-India service under:

  1. Article 249
  2. Article 312
  3. Article 315
  4. Article 323A

Answer: B. Under Article 312, Parliament can create a new all-India service if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority. IAS and IPS are deemed services, and the IFoS was created in 1966.