SSC Stenographer 2026 · Exam Replay

General Awareness — Stenographer Grade C & D 2026

All 11 shifts as they were held: Reasoning and General Awareness as 50-question, 30-minute tests and English as 100 questions in 60 minutes, with +1 / −0.25 marking. Every answer has been checked; where the official key was wrong, or a second option is also right, the question says so.

9 Sep, Shift 1

Q51 · Polity & Governance

Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which of the following statements most accurately describes the rule regarding the admissibility of confessions made to police officers?

  1. A confession made to a police officer is admissible if recorded in the presence of a magistrate.
  2. A confession made to a police officer is admissible only if it leads to the discovery of a fact under Section 27.
  3. All confessions made to police officers are admissible as per Section 25.
  4. A confession made to a police officer is admissible if made voluntarily without any inducement, threat or promise

Answer: B. Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 made a confession to a police officer inadmissible, and Section 26 did the same for confessions made in police custody (unless before a Magistrate). The one exception is Section 27 : the part of the statement that leads to the discovery of a fact (e.g. a hidden weapon) can be proved. Since July 2024 the same rules continue under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (Sections 22–23).

Q52 · Art & Culture

Which of the following features is most characteristic of Meitei Traditional Architecture associated with Sanamahism in Manipur?

  1. Use of large granite blocks with intricate stone carvings depicting Hindu epics.
  2. Predominantly wooden construction with raised platforms and open-air sanctuaries dedicated to nature deities.
  3. Pyramid-shaped stupas with golden spires influenced by Tibetan Buddhism.
  4. Fortified palaces with Mughal-style domes and minarets reflecting medieval Islamic influence.

Answer: B. Sanamahism is the indigenous faith of the Meitei people of Manipur, centred on deities like Lainingthou Sanamahi and Leimarel Sidabi. Its shrines (e.g. the Sanamahi Kachin in every Meitei home, and the traditional Umanglai sacred groves) are built mostly of wood, bamboo and thatch on raised plinths, with open sanctuaries linked to nature and ancestor worship. Stone temples, stupas and Mughal domes are not part of this tradition.

Q53 · Art & Culture

Which of the following characteristics best distinguishes Kamsale from other devotional dance forms in Karnataka, particularly in terms of its musical instrumentation, religious significance, and performance context?

  1. It is a temple dance performed silently by women, emphasizing stillness and subtle hand gestures to invoke goddess Durg
  2. It involves rhythmic clashing of metal cymbals called ‘Kamsale’ by male performers, who sing praises of Lord Male Mahadeshwara, combining martial dance movements with devotional fervor during pilgrimage and festival rituals.
  3. It is a purely theatrical folk drama without any musical instruments, narrating mythological stories through dialogue and facial expressions.
  4. It is a harvest dance performed during the festival of Sankranti, primarily focused on celebrating agricultural prosperity with group formations and colorful costumes.

Answer: B. Kamsale is a devotional folk dance of Karnataka (Mysuru, Chamarajanagar region) performed by male devotees of Lord Male Mahadeshwara . Dancers clash a pair of bronze cymbals called kamsale in rhythm while singing the deity's praises; it is linked with the Kuruba community and Deeksha (initiation) into the cult.

Q54 · Art & Culture

Which folk dance of India is performed during Navratri and involves rhythmic clapping and circular group formations?

  1. Bihu
  2. Ghoomar
  3. Garba
  4. Lavani

Answer: C. Garba (Gujarat) is danced during Navratri in circles around a lamp or image of Goddess Amba, with rhythmic clapping. Its partner form Dandiya Raas uses sticks. Bihu is Assam's harvest dance, Ghoomar is Rajasthani, and Lavani is a Maharashtrian folk form.

Q55 · Art & Culture

Which of the following festivals is celebrated to commemorate the birth of Lord Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism?

  1. Mahavir Jayanti
  2. Paryushana
  3. Diwali
  4. Navapad Oli

Answer: A. Mahavir Jayanti (Chaitra Shukla Trayodashi) marks the birth of Vardhamana Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara, born at Kundagrama near Vaishali. Paryushana is the Jain festival of fasting and forgiveness; Diwali marks Mahavira's nirvana at Pavapuri.

Q56 · Art & Culture

Which of the following festivals marks the beginning of the harvest season in Tamil Nadu and is closely associated with sun worship?

  1. Ugadi
  2. Vishu
  3. Pongal
  4. Makar Sankranti

Answer: C. Pongal is Tamil Nadu's four-day harvest festival in mid-January (Thai month), offered to Surya, the Sun god. The days are Bhogi, Surya (Thai) Pongal, Mattu Pongal (for cattle) and Kaanum Pongal. Ugadi is the Telugu–Kannada new year and Vishu is Kerala's new year.

Q57 · Art & Culture

In what ways do Manganiyar and Langas musical traditions reflect the complex interplay of social hierarchy, patronage, and cultural transmission in Rajasthan’s folk music landscape?

  1. By being independent of any patronage system and performed solely in public festivals
  2. By historically relying on the patronage of Rajput and Muslim elites, these communities preserved and transmitted a rich repertoire of songs praising rulers, deities, and local legends, thus blending diverse cultural influences and sustaining their social identity through music
  3. By exclusively performing classical Hindustani music without any folk elements
  4. By rejecting all traditional instruments and focusing only on vocal performances

Answer: B. Manganiyars (Muslim hereditary musicians of Jaisalmer–Barmer) and Langas historically performed for jajmans (patrons) — Rajput and Muslim landed families — at births, weddings and festivals. This patron–musician bond preserved an oral repertoire of ballads and praise songs passed down through families. Key instruments: kamaicha (Manganiyar) and sindhi sarangi (Langa).

Q58 · Art & Culture

The padams of Kshetrayya are known for which of the following features?

  1. Purely devotional language
  2. Use of abstract philosophical ideas
  3. Sringara rasa with Nayika-Nayaka bhava
  4. Exclusive usage of Sanskrit

Answer: C. Kshetrayya (17th century, Andhra) composed Telugu padams addressed to Muvva Gopala (Krishna). They are famous for sringara rasa — love expressed through the nayika–nayaka (heroine–hero) relationship — and remain key abhinaya pieces in Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi.

Q59 · Polity & Governance

Regarding the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 and the functioning of Gram Nyayalayas (village courts), which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Gram Nyayalayas are permanent courts established under Article 39A of the Constitution, having the same jurisdiction and powers as the District Courts.
  2. The Gram Nyayalayas Act mandates that every Gram Nyayalaya shall be presided over by a judicial officer with the powers of a civil judge (senior division), and aims to provide speedy and cost-effective justice at the grassroots level.
  3. Gram Nyayalayas can try all criminal and civil cases without any territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction limits, including serious offences punishable by death or life imprisonment.
  4. The implementation of Gram Nyayalayas has been universally successful across all States, with no significant challenges related to infrastructure, awareness, or staffing.

Answer: B. The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 set up mobile village courts at the intermediate panchayat level for quick, cheap justice. Each is presided over by a Nyayadhikari , a judicial officer with the powers of a Judicial Magistrate First Class, appointed by the state government in consultation with the High Court. They try only the specified civil and criminal cases, and implementation across states has been uneven.

Q60 · Environment & Ecology

Which of the following statements about the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) is incorrect?

  1. CCTS allows industries to trade emission allowances, enabling those who reduce emissions below targets to sell surplus credits to others exceeding their limits.
  2. The scheme operates on the principle of cap-and-trade, setting a legal limit on total greenhouse gas emissions for regulated entities.
  3. Participation in CCTS is mandatory for all sectors irrespective of their emission levels and geographical location.
  4. CCTS incentivizes investment in clean technologies by assigning economic value to reductions in carbon emissions.

Answer: C. India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), 2023 was notified under the Energy Conservation Act. It has a compliance mechanism for notified energy-intensive sectors and a voluntary offset mechanism for others. So participation is not mandatory for all sectors, which makes that statement the incorrect one. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is the administrator.

Q61 · Environment & Ecology

Which of the following statements best reflects the scope, powers, and limitations of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, in India’s environmental governance framework?

  1. The Act empowers only the Central Pollution Control Board to lay down standards for discharge of environmental pollutants and excludes the Ministry of Environment from enforcement functions.
  2. The Act, enacted under Article 21 of the Constitution, enables state governments to declare ecologically sensitive areas (ESAs) without central approval, ensuring decentralised environmental protection.
  3. The Act allows the Central Government to take all necessary measures for environmental protection, including issuing directions that override other laws, but lacks provisions for penal action against non-compliance.
  4. The Act enables the Central Government to delegate powers to any authority, including creation of Environment Tribunals, and provides the legal basis for notifications such as EIA and Coastal Regulation Zones.

Answer: D. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was passed under Article 253 after the Bhopal gas tragedy. It is an umbrella law letting the Central Government take all measures to protect the environment and delegate powers to authorities (Section 3(3)). Several rules were framed under it: EIA notifications, CRZ, and hazardous waste rules.

Q62 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following statements about the PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM) is correct?

  1. POEM is a separate satellite launched alongside PSLV missions that remains in orbit to perform manned space experiments.
  2. POEM utilizes the spent PS4 stage of the PSLV as an orbital platform to host payloads, thereby enhancing mission utility without launching a new satellite bus.
  3. POEM is an independent ISRO launch vehicle program intended to replace the PSLV for deploying nanosatellites.
  4. POEM refers to a dedicated PSLV variant that deploys multiple satellites into geostationary orbit using reusable boosters.

Answer: B. POEM (PSLV Orbital Experimental Module) reuses the spent fourth stage (PS4) of the PSLV as an orbiting platform after satellite separation. Fitted with solar panels and control, it hosts experimental payloads from ISRO, startups and academia. It was first flown on PSLV-C53 (2022).

Q63 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following best highlights the multifaceted significance of India’s Gaganyaan mission, beyond simply launching humans into space?

  1. Gaganyaan focuses exclusively on deploying reusable satellites to reduce mission costs and eliminate dependency on international crew modules.
  2. Gaganyaan demonstrates India’s autonomous capability in human spaceflight, fosters development in advanced life-support systems, and strategically positions India among select nations with orbital crewed mission capabilities.
  3. Gaganyaan aims to deploy a space telescope for X-ray astronomy and deep-space observation of black holes and neutron stars.
  4. Gaganyaan is a robotic interplanetary mission targeting Venus, with autonomous Al payloads for analyzing the planet's sulfuric atmosphere.

Answer: B. Gaganyaan is ISRO's first human spaceflight programme, aiming to send a 3-member crew to about 400 km LEO for up to 3 days. Beyond national prestige it builds life-support systems, crew escape systems and human-rated launch vehicles (HLVM3). It is a stepping stone to the Bharatiya Antariksh Station. Uncrewed test flights (G1) come first.

Q64 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following best explains the evolving strategic and technological significance of Earth Observation Satellites (EOS) in India’s space program, and how they differ from traditional remote sensing systems?

  1. EOS are space-based telescopes used exclusively for astronomical imaging and star tracking, differing from remote sensing satellites which focus only on Earth's land cover and mineral deposits.
  2. EOS satellites are designed to detect gravitational waves from Earth's core, while remote sensing satellites map tectonic activities through radar interferometry.
  3. EOS in India form an integrated constellation for real-time, high-resolution monitoring of weather, agriculture, disasters, and strategic assets using synthetic aperture radar and multi-spectral imaging, offering higher revisit capability and data fusion compared to traditional remote sensing satellites.
  4. EOS are low-cost balloon-based systems that collect atmospheric data in real-time, replacing the need for satellite-based observation platforms.

Answer: C. Earth Observation Satellites (e.g. Resourcesat, Cartosat, RISAT, EOS-series, Oceansat) give high-resolution, repeat data for weather, agriculture, disaster management, urban planning and border security. India's EOS naming (from 2020) integrates these into a constellation serving both civil and strategic users.

Q65 · Space, Science & Technology

What are the unique design features and strategic advantages of India’s Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) compared to traditional launch vehicles like PSLV, and what challenges must be addressed to fully operationalize its commercial potential?

  1. SSLV uses Cryogenic propulsion to place large payloads into geostationary orbit and is fully reusable, unlike PSLV which requires booster recovery.
  2. SSLV is designed for launching small payloads on-demand into low Earth orbit, offers rapid turnaround, modular manufacturing, and on-site assembly, but faces challenges in payload capacity, precision injection, and commercial competition.
  3. SSLV carries hybrid electric propulsion for Earth-Moon transfer orbits and faces difficulties in re-entry shielding and autonomous docking.
  4. SSLV is primarily an air-launched system capable of deploying mini-satellites globally without fixed launch infrastructure, similar to Gaganyaan’s human space module.

Answer: B. The SSLV is a three-stage all-solid launcher for up to 500 kg to low Earth orbit. It is built for launch-on-demand, low cost and quick integration (small team, few days). The first flight (2022) failed, while D2 and D3 (2023, 2024) succeeded. Challenges: reliability, commercial demand, and competition from private launchers.

Q66 · Biology

Which part of the egg contains the highest protein content?

  1. Shell
  2. Yolk
  3. Chalaza
  4. Albumen

Answer: D. Egg white ( albumen ) holds more than half of an egg's total protein, mainly ovalbumin. The yolk contains fats, cholesterol and vitamins A, D, E, K. Chalazae are rope-like strands that anchor the yolk in the centre.

Q67 · Physics

According to Wien’s Displacement Law, how does the temperature of an object influence the wavelength of its peak emission?

  1. The hotter the object, the shorter the wavelength at which it emits the most energy.
  2. The colder the object, the more energy it emits at visible wavelengths.
  3. The temperature has no impact on emission spectrum.
  4. The higher the temperature, the broader the wavelength range it absorbs, not emits.

Answer: A. Wien's Displacement Law : λmax × T = constant (≈2.9×10⁻³ m·K). So the hotter a body, the shorter the wavelength of its peak emission. This is why hot stars look blue-white while cooler stars look red.

Q68 · Physics

What is a direct consequence of Einstein's Special Theory of Relativity?

  1. Mass and energy are distinct and independently conserved.
  2. Time and space are absolute quantities for all observers.
  3. The speed of light is constant in all inertial frames, leading to time dilation and length contraction.
  4. Gravity travels faster than light under certain conditions.

Answer: C. Einstein's Special Theory of Relativity (1905) rests on two postulates: the laws of physics are the same in all inertial frames, and the speed of light in vacuum is constant for all observers. Consequences: time dilation, length contraction, relativity of simultaneity, and mass–energy equivalence E = mc².

Q69 · Economy

Which of the following statements best explains the transformative impact of the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) on India’s digital payments ecosystem as of 2025, and what challenges does it face in achieving inclusive financial digitization?

  1. UPI replaced all forms of cash transactions by mandating digital payments for all retail purchases above =1000
  2. UPI enables instant, interoperable, and cost-free fund transfers across banks via mobile devices, significantly boosting financial inclusion; however, challenges like cybersecurity risks, digital literacy gaps, and rural internet connectivity continue to limit its universal adoption
  3. UPI operates solely on QR-code based transactions and does not support mobile app or bank-to-bank transfers
  4. UPI transactions are limited to government subsidies and welfare payments, with minimal use in private sector payments

Answer: B. UPI was launched in 2016 by NPCI and allows instant, 24×7, interoperable bank-to-bank transfers through a mobile app and a virtual address. It handles over 10 billion transactions a month and has gone global (Singapore, UAE, France and others). Challenges include digital literacy, the rural connectivity gap, cyber fraud, and a zero-MDR model that limits revenue for providers.

Q70 · Economy

In the context of India's Financial Inclusion Index (Fl-index) developed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which of the following best reflects the multidimensional nature of the index and its policy significance in 2025?

  1. The Fl-Index is a single-dimensional score based only on the number of bank accounts per 1,000 adults, useful solely for rural credit planning
  2. The Fl-index measures the total value of digital payments in the economy and is used primarily to track fintech investments
  3. The Fl-index captures multiple dimensions—Access, Usage, and Quality—making it a comprehensive tool for assessing inclusive financial growth, guiding both central and state-level policies
  4. The Fl-index is used only by private sector banks for internal risk assessment and is not a public policy instrument

Answer: C. The RBI's Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) was launched in 2021 and is published every July. It scores from 0 to 100 on three dimensions: Access (35%), Usage (45%) and Quality (20%) . It covers banking, investments, insurance, postal and pension services.

Q71 · Economy

In the context of post-1991 economic reforms in India, what was the core contribution of the Chelliah Committee, and why was it considered foundational for modern tax policy?

  1. It recommended the introduction of GST and a common market across states.
  2. It laid down a framework for monetary policy autonomy and inflation targeting.
  3. It advocated a shift from direct to indirect taxation to improve fiscal federalism.
  4. It recommended broadening the tax base, reducing exemptions, and rationalizing tax rates to improve revenue efficiency.

Answer: D. The Raja Chelliah Committee (Tax Reforms Committee, 1991) laid the base of modern tax policy. It recommended lower and fewer rates, a broader base with fewer exemptions, and reliance on direct taxes. It also suggested moving excise towards VAT, which later led to GST.

Q72 · Economy

Which of the following sectors received the highest priority in the First Five Year Plan (1951-56)?

  1. Industry
  2. Transport
  3. Agriculture and irrigation
  4. Communications

Answer: C. The First Five Year Plan (1951–56) was based on the Harrod–Domar model. It gave top priority to agriculture, irrigation and power , as post-Partition India faced food shortages. Projects like Bhakra-Nangal and Damodar Valley were taken up. The Second Plan (Mahalanobis model) then shifted to heavy industry.

Q73 · Economy

What is the economic term used to describe a situation where high inflation occurs simultaneously with stagnant economic growth?

  1. Depression
  2. Recession
  3. Reflation
  4. Stagflation

Answer: D. Stagflation = stagnation + inflation: high inflation together with slow growth and high unemployment, as seen after the 1970s oil shocks. Reflation is a deliberate policy push to raise output and prices after a downturn.

Q74 · Sports

Who is the young Indian chess prodigy that recently defeated World No.1 Magnus Carlsen in a classical game, signaling a generational shift in world chess?

  1. Nihal Sarin
  2. Gukesh D
  3. Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa
  4. Arjun Erigaisi

Answer: B / C. R. Praggnanandhaa (Chennai) beat world No. 1 Magnus Carlsen in classical chess at Norway Chess 2024; he had earlier beaten him in rapid and online games. D. Gukesh became the youngest World Champion in 2024.

Q75 · Sports

The National Games 2007 held in Assam were a turning point for the North East’s representation in national sports. What was a major social impact of this event?

  1. Reduction in insurgent activities due to youth participation
  2. Decline in migration to urban centers
  3. Massive urban expansion across Tripura
  4. Formation of a Northeast Olympic Council

Answer: A. The 33rd National Games, 2007 were held in Guwahati, Assam, the first time in the North-East. They built infrastructure like the Sarusajai complex and drew regional youth into sports. The answer key credits them with channelling youth away from insurgency.

Q76 · Geography

The Himalayas are a young fold mountain system which significantly influences the climate and physiography of India. Among the different ranges of the Himalayas, which range lies the furthest north and contains some of the highest peaks in the world, including Mount Godwin-Austen (K2)?

  1. Shiwalik Range
  2. Middle Himalayas
  3. Trans-Himalayas
  4. Greater Himalayas

Answer: C. K2 (Mount Godwin-Austen, 8,611 m, India's highest peak as claimed in PoK/Gilgit) lies in the Karakoram . The Karakoram, along with the Ladakh and Zaskar ranges, is grouped under the Trans-Himalayas , the northernmost Himalayan system. Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga lie in the Greater Himalaya (Himadri).

Q77 · Geography

Which among the following is the correct sequence of the Himalayan ranges from south to north?

  1. Greater Himalayas — Lesser Himalayas — Shiwalik
  2. Shiwalik — Lesser Himalayas — Greater Himalayas
  3. Lesser Himalayas — Greater Himalayas — Shiwalik
  4. Shiwalik — Greater Himalayas — Lesser Himalayas

Answer: B. From south to north the ranges are: Shiwalik (Outer Himalaya, lowest, with 'duns' like Dehradun) → Lesser/Middle Himalaya (Himachal) , with ranges like Pir Panjal and Dhauladhar and hill stations → Greater Himalaya (Himadri) , the highest peaks. Beyond them lie the Trans-Himalayas.

Q78 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

According to the World Economic Forum's Global Competitiveness Index (GCI), India faces significant institutional challenges. Which one below best illustrates such a challenge?

  1. Lack of foreign language education
  2. Inefficient government bureaucracy and weak legal enforcement
  3. Rise in rural tourism
  4. Increase in household debt

Answer: B. The Global Competitiveness Index is by the World Economic Forum. On India it repeatedly flagged institutional weaknesses: red tape and bureaucratic inefficiency, slow contract enforcement and weak legal systems . These are the institutional pillar issues, as opposed to market-size strengths.

Q79 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

India’s sharp fall in the Press Freedom Index 2024, as reported by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), was largely attributed to:

  1. Lack of printing infrastructure
  2. Reduced number of journalists
  3. Increasing violence against journalists and digital surveillance
  4. State funding of media outlets

Answer: C. The World Press Freedom Index is published by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), Paris, on 3 May. India's low rank has been linked to violence against journalists , concentrated media ownership, political pressure and surveillance. India was 159th in 2024 and 151st in 2025.

Q80 · Art & Culture

Which one of the following is correctly paired regarding the Santhal festival Erok Sim?

  1. Celebrated in Baisakh - Santhal sowing begins
  2. Celebrated in Asarh — Marks agricultural commencement
  3. Celebrated in Kartik - Festival of hunting
  4. Celebrated in Phalgun — Harvest concludes

Answer: B. Erok Sim is a Santhal sowing festival held in Asarh (June–July) at the onset of the monsoon, when seeds are sown and the village spirits are propitiated. Other Santhal festivals: Sohrai (harvest/cattle, Kartik), Baha (spring flowers, Phalgun), and Karam.

Q81 · Art & Culture

Which of the following dance forms and accompaniments is accurately matched?

  1. Rouf - Rabab and Tumbaknari
  2. Thiruvathira Kali - Dhol and Harmonium
  3. Saila — Pheran and Flute
  4. Sattriya- Nagara and tribal flute

Answer: A. Rouf is a spring/harvest folk dance of Kashmiri women, performed in rows. It is accompanied by the rabab and tumbaknari (an earthen drum), with Kashmiri songs. Thiruvathira Kali is Kerala's women's dance, Saila is from Chhattisgarh, and Sattriya is Assam's classical dance.

Q82 · Books, Awards & Personalities

In which language was The Blind Lady’s Descendants originally written?

  1. Kannada
  2. Malayalam
  3. Hindi
  4. English

Answer: D. The Blind Lady's Descendants is by Anees Salim and was written in English . It won the Sahitya Akademi Award (English) in 2018. It is narrated by a young man from a Muslim family in a Kerala coastal town.

Q83 · Economy

What was the main objective of India's 'Import Substitution Policy’ adopted post-independence?

  1. To increase the export of Indian manufactured goods
  2. To attract foreign direct investment (FDI) into key industries
  3. To protect domestic industries from foreign competition
  4. To liberalize trade and integrate with the global economy

Answer: C. Import substitution (1950s–1980s) meant producing at home what was imported, protected by high tariffs and quotas. The aim was to shield infant domestic industries from foreign competition and save foreign exchange. It built an industrial base but also led to inefficiency, which the 1991 reforms dismantled.

Q84 · Modern History

Which of the following pairs correctly matches a British annexation policy with its primary characteristic?

  1. Subsidiary Alliance: Annexation of states due to misgovernance.
  2. Doctrine of Lapse: Annexation of states if a ruler died without a natural male heir.
  3. Paramountcy Policy: Integration of princely states through popular referendum.
  4. Ring-Fence Policy: Direct military confrontation for territorial expansion.

Answer: B. The Doctrine of Lapse (Lord Dalhousie, 1848–56) annexed states whose rulers died without a natural male heir, since adopted sons were not recognised. Satara (1848), Jaitpur, Sambalpur, Baghat, Udaipur, Nagpur (1854) and Jhansi (1854) were taken. The Subsidiary Alliance (Wellesley, 1798) was different: rulers kept British troops and a Resident, paid for them, and lost their foreign-policy independence.

Q85 · Sports

Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully. Choose the correct option regarding their truth value and relationship. Assertion (A): The Fit India Movement was launched to promote daily fitness. Reason (R): It aims to train elite Olympic athletes.

  1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. Ais true, but R is false.
  4. Ais false, but R is true.

Answer: C. The Fit India Movement was launched on 29 August 2019 (National Sports Day) by PM Modi. It is a mass movement to make fitness part of daily life for every citizen. Training elite Olympians is the job of schemes like TOPS and Khelo India, so the Assertion is true and the Reason is false.

Q86 · Polity & Governance

The Parliament of India consists of which of the following?

  1. Only Lok Sabha
  2. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
  3. President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
  4. Only Rajya Sabha

Answer: C. Under Article 79 , Parliament consists of the President and two Houses : the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The President is not a member of either House but is an integral part of Parliament. The President summons and prorogues the Houses and assents to Bills.

Q87 · Sports

“Dump shot” is a term used in which sport?

  1. Basketball
  2. Badminton
  3. Wrestling
  4. Golf

Answer: B. A dump shot in badminton is a quick, soft push of the shuttle just over the net, usually in doubles, to catch the opponent off guard. Other badminton terms: smash, drop, clear, lob, let, and service court.

Q88 · Geography

What term is used for a moon that occurs on the second full moon within a calendar month?

  1. Blood moon
  2. Blue moon
  3. Super moon
  4. Harvest moon

Answer: B. A Blue Moon is the second full moon in one calendar month (it happens about every 2.7 years). A Blood Moon is the Moon turned red during a total lunar eclipse, a Supermoon is a full moon near perigee, and the Harvest Moon is the full moon closest to the autumn equinox.

Q89 · Polity & Governance

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India as a:

  1. Sovereign, Secular, Socialist, Democratic Republic
  2. Federal Kingdom
  3. Dictatorship
  4. Constitutional Monarchy

Answer: A. The Preamble declares India a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic . 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' were added by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 . The Preamble is based on Nehru's Objectives Resolution, and the Kesavananda Bharati case held it to be part of the Constitution.

Q90 · Polity & Governance

After July 2024, what is the focus of all three laws introduced (BNS, BNSS, BSA)?

  1. Citizen rights and justice
  2. Harshest punishments
  3. Revenue collection
  4. Taxes simplification

Answer: A. From 1 July 2024 , the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (replacing the IPC), the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (replacing the CrPC) and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (replacing the Evidence Act) came into force. The government described them as shifting from 'punishment (dand)' to ' justice (nyay) ' and citizen-centric processes: e-FIR, Zero FIR, time-bound trials and video-graphed searches.

Q91 · Art & Culture

Which are the two principal traditions of Indian classical music?

  1. Hindustani and Western
  2. Carnatic and Hindustani
  3. Odissi and Rabindra Sangeet
  4. Gharana and Folk

Answer: B. Indian classical music has two streams: Hindustani (north, shaped by Persian influence, with forms like dhrupad, khayal and thumri) and Carnatic (south, kriti-based, codified by Purandara Dasa and the Trinity — Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar and Syama Sastri).

Q92 · Art & Culture

Which Punjabi festival is celebrated in January with bonfires, folk songs, and marking the harvest of Rabi crops?

  1. Baisakhi
  2. Lohri
  3. Teej
  4. Maghi

Answer: B. Lohri is celebrated on 13 January, the night before Makar Sankranti (Maghi), with bonfires, songs of Dulla Bhatti, and offerings of til, gur, peanuts and popcorn. It marks the peak of winter and the maturing of the rabi (wheat) crop. Baisakhi (April) marks the rabi harvest itself.

Q93 · Economy

Which institution was set up in 1950 for central economic planning in India?

  1. Reserve Bank of India
  2. Planning Commission
  3. NITI Aayog
  4. NABARD

Answer: B. The Planning Commission was set up on 15 March 1950 by a Cabinet resolution (not a constitutional or statutory body), with Nehru as the first Chairman. It was replaced by NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015.

Q94 · Geography

The western region of India is most famous for which economic activity?

  1. Tea plantations
  2. Oil refining and petrochemicals
  3. Rice cultivation
  4. Rubber industries

Answer: B. Western India — Gujarat (Jamnagar, home to the world's largest refinery complex, Koyali, Vadodara, Hazira, Dahej) and Maharashtra (Mumbai High offshore, Trombay) — is India's hub for crude oil refining and petrochemicals . Tea is grown in Assam and the Nilgiris, and rubber in Kerala.

Q95 · Geography

What is India’s population pyramid expected to look like by 2047, based on current demographic transitions noted in 2025?

  1. Huge youth base
  2. Narrow top, wide base
  3. Symmetrical, with elderly equal to youth
  4. Bulging at elderly end, base contracts

Answer: D. India's median age is about 28–29 today, but falling fertility (TFR about 2.0) and rising life expectancy mean an ageing population by 2047. The pyramid will have a narrower base and a bulge in the older age groups. The demographic dividend window is expected to last till around 2040.

Q96 · Polity & Governance

The “Power of Judicial Review” in India is inspired from which country's constitution?

  1. British Constitution
  2. French Constitution
  3. Irish Constitution
  4. United States Constitution

Answer: D. Judicial review comes from the US Constitution , along with Fundamental Rights, the independence of the judiciary, impeachment of the President, and the Vice-President as ex-officio Chairman of the upper house. From Britain came the parliamentary system and rule of law; from Ireland, the DPSPs.

Q97 · Polity & Governance

The Constitution of Parliament comes under:

  1. Article 72
  2. Article 75
  3. Article 77
  4. Article 79

Answer: D. Article 79 : the Constitution of Parliament (President + Rajya Sabha + Lok Sabha). Distractors: Art 72 is the President's pardoning power, Art 75 covers other provisions on Ministers, and Art 77 is the conduct of business of the Government of India.

Q98 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

What was India's rank in the World Press Freedom Index 2026?

  1. 151st
  2. 153rd
  3. 157th
  4. 166th

Answer: C. As per the answer key, India ranked 157th in RSF's World Press Freedom Index 2026. For trend: India was 161st in 2023, 159th in 2024 and 151st in 2025 (out of 180). Norway has topped the index for years.

Q99 · Economy

Under the 1991 economic reforms, reducing government equity in Public Sector Undertakings and selling shares to private entities was a mechanism of:

  1. Globalisation
  2. Liberalisation
  3. Privatisation
  4. Nationalisation

Answer: C. Privatisation (one arm of the 1991 LPG reforms) includes disinvestment : selling government equity in PSUs to private investors or the public. Liberalisation means removing controls like licences, and globalisation means integrating with the world economy.

Q100 · International Organisations & Relations

The 'SAARC' Secretariat is located in which South Asian capital city?

  1. New Delhi
  2. Islamabad
  3. Kathmandu
  4. Malé State

Answer: C. The SAARC Secretariat is in Kathmandu, Nepal (set up in 1987). SAARC was founded on 8 December 1985 in Dhaka and has 8 members: India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Maldives and Afghanistan (the 8th, added in 2007).

9 Sep, Shift 2

Q51 · Art & Culture

Where is the Hola Mohalla festival primarily celebrated?

  1. Amritsar
  2. Anandpur Sahib
  3. Patiala
  4. Bathinda

Answer: B. Hola Mohalla was started by Guru Gobind Singh in 1701 at Anandpur Sahib (Punjab). It is held the day after Holi. Nihang Sikhs display martial skills like gatka, horse-riding and mock battles.

Q52 · Art & Culture

Which of the following activities is traditionally performed by Nihangs during Hola Mohalla?

  1. Boat racing and kite flying
  2. Sword dances and horse-riding mock battles
  3. Firewalking rituals and chanting mantras
  4. Idol immersion and temple processions

Answer: B. Hola Mohalla's highlight is the Nihang display of martial skills : gatka (sword fighting), tent-pegging, horse-riding stunts and mock battles, followed by kirtan and langar. Guru Gobind Singh started it to build a martial spirit in the Khalsa.

Q53 · Art & Culture

Which wind instrument is used in Nongkrem dance?

  1. Been
  2. Tangmuri
  3. Pungi
  4. Shehnai

Answer: B. Nongkrem is a five-day thanksgiving dance-festival of the Khasi (Hima Khyrim, Smit, Meghalaya) held for a good harvest. Men and women dance to the tangmuri (a Khasi pipe/wind instrument) and drums. Shad Suk Mynsiem is another Khasi dance.

Q54 · Art & Culture

Which of the following costume descriptions correctly corresponds to the Loor folk dance of Haryana?

  1. Ghagra, choli, odhni with silver jewelry
  2. Ghagra, kurti, chundri and chunda
  3. Lehenga, kurta, phulkari dupatta with bangles
  4. Angarkha, odhni, and traditional mojris

Answer: B. Loor is a Haryanvi folk dance of girls in the Bagar region, performed in Phalgun (spring) around Holi, with question-answer songs. Dancers wear the traditional ghagra, kurti, chundri (odhni) and chunda . Other Haryanvi dances: Ghoomar, Phag, Dhamal and Saang.

Q55 · Ancient History

Evaluate the following statements related to the Rigvedic society: Statement 1: The Rigveda contains hymns dedicated to deities such as Indra, Agni, and Soma. Statement 2: The society described in the Rigveda was entirely urban and based on iron tools. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: A. The Rigveda has hymns to Indra (most hymns, 250), Agni (200) and Soma , so statement 1 is correct. Rigvedic society was rural and pastoral , used copper/bronze (ayas), and knew no iron. Iron (krishna ayas) appears in the Later Vedic period, so statement 2 is wrong.

Q56 · Geography

At which location was the world’s highest motorable road constructed under Project Himank by BRO?

  1. Rohtang Pass, Himachal Pradesh
  2. Nathu La, Sikkim
  3. Umling La, Ladakh
  4. Khardung La, Ladakh

Answer: C. Umling La in eastern Ladakh (about 19,024 ft) is the world's highest motorable road. It was built by the Border Roads Organisation under Project Himank and certified by Guinness in 2021. It beat the Uturuncu road in Bolivia. Khardung La is about 17,582 ft.

Q57 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Who among the following is the author of the semi-autobiographical novel Em and the Big Hoom?

  1. Jerry Pinto
  2. Chetan Bhagat
  3. Manu Joseph
  4. Shashi Tharoor

Answer: A. Em and the Big Hoom (2012) by Jerry Pinto is about a Goan-Catholic family in Mumbai coping with the mother's bipolar disorder. It won the Windham-Campbell Prize and the Sahitya Akademi Award (English, 2016).

Q58 · Polity & Governance

Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy is economic in nature?

  1. Article 44 - Uniform Civil Code
  2. Article 43 - Living wage for workers
  3. Article 40 - Village Panchayats
  4. Article 48A - Protection and improvement of environment

Answer: B. Article 43 (living wage and decent working conditions, cottage industries) is a socialist/economic directive. Article 44 (Uniform Civil Code) is liberal-intellectual, Art 40 (village panchayats) is Gandhian, and Art 48A (environment, added by the 42nd Amendment) is liberal.

Q59 · Art & Culture

Which colours were commonly used in prehistoric rock paintings found in India?

  1. Blue, yellow, and green
  2. Black, white, and red ochre
  3. Silver, gold, and bronze
  4. Indigo, vermilion, and saffron

Answer: B. Prehistoric rock art (e.g. Bhimbetka , MP, a UNESCO site) used mineral pigments: red ochre (geru/haematite), white (kaolin/lime), and black (charcoal/manganese) , plus some green and yellow. Scenes show hunting, dancing and animals like bison and deer.

Q60 · Geography

Which of the following statements about quasars is most accurate?

  1. They are dying stars emitting intense gamma rays.
  2. They are neutron stars with strong magnetic fields.
  3. They are active galactic nuclei powered by supermassive black holes.
  4. They are regions of low gravity near wormholes.

Answer: C. Quasars (quasi-stellar radio sources) are extremely luminous active galactic nuclei , powered by gas falling into supermassive black holes at the centres of distant young galaxies. They can outshine their whole host galaxy.

Q61 · Geography

During which event does the Moon come between the Earth and the Sun, casting a shadow on Earth?

  1. Lunar Eclipse
  2. Solar Eclipse
  3. Equinox
  4. Meteor Shower

Answer: B. A solar eclipse happens when the Moon comes between the Sun and Earth on a new-moon day, casting its shadow on Earth. A lunar eclipse is when Earth comes between the Sun and Moon (full moon).

Q62 · Geography

What astronomical event marks the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere?

  1. Autumnal Equinox
  2. Winter Solstice
  3. Vernal Equinox
  4. Summer Solstice

Answer: D. The summer solstice is on about 21 June, when the Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer, giving the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere. The winter solstice (22 December) is the shortest day, and the equinoxes (21 March, 23 September) have equal day and night.

Q63 · Geography

Which major internal boundary of the Earth separates the mantle from the outer core and is characterized by a sudden drop in seismic wave velocities?

  1. Moho Discontinuity
  2. Lehmann Discontinuity
  3. Gutenberg Discontinuity
  4. Conrad Discontinuity

Answer: C. The Gutenberg discontinuity (about 2,900 km deep) separates the mantle from the outer core. S-waves disappear there and P-waves slow sharply, which proves the outer core is liquid. Moho = crust–mantle boundary, Conrad = upper–lower crust, Lehmann = outer–inner core.

Q64 · Physics

In radioactive decay, what happens to the mass number (A) and atomic number (Z) of a nucleus during beta*-decay (positron emission)?

  1. A remains unchanged, Z decreases by 1
  2. A decreases by 4, Z decreases by 2
  3. A remains unchanged, Z increases by 1
  4. A and Z both remain unchanged

Answer: A. In β⁺ decay (positron emission) a proton becomes a neutron, emitting a positron and a neutrino. So A is unchanged and Z decreases by 1 . In β⁻ decay, A is unchanged and Z increases by 1. In α-decay, A falls by 4 and Z by 2.

Q65 · Environment & Ecology

What does the Bhadia Solar Park symbolize in India’s renewable energy journey?

  1. Expansion of thermal power plants
  2. India's dependency on fossil fuels
  3. India's commitment to hydroelectricity
  4. A shift from conventional to solar energy

Answer: D. The Bhadla Solar Park (Jodhpur, Rajasthan, about 2,245 MW) is among the world's largest solar parks. It symbolises India's shift from fossil fuels to renewables, towards the target of 500 GW non-fossil capacity by 2030. (Other large parks: Pavagada in Karnataka, Kurnool in Andhra Pradesh.)

Q66 · Geography

Why are most iron and steel plants located in the Chota Nagpur Plateau?

  1. Near urban markets
  2. Cheap skilled labour
  3. Rich in iron ore, coal, and raw materials
  4. Waterway access for transport

Answer: C. The Chota Nagpur Plateau (Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh) has iron ore, coal (Jharia, Bokaro, Raniganj), manganese and limestone close together, plus water from the Damodar and Subarnarekha. That is why steel plants cluster here: Jamshedpur, Bokaro, Durgapur, Rourkela, Bhilai.

Q67 · International Organisations & Relations

Which geopolitical factor most significantly hinders India's direct land connectivity to Afghanistan and Central Asia through its western borders?

  1. Insufficient foreign investment for infrastructure.
  2. Unresolved border disputes with a key transit country.
  3. Scarcity of natural resources in the bordering regions.
  4. India's strategic preference for sea-based trade routes.

Answer: B. India's land route to Afghanistan and Central Asia runs through Pakistan (and PoK). Hostile relations and the unresolved Kashmir dispute block overland transit. India therefore uses Chabahar port (Iran) and the INSTC as alternatives.

Q68 · Space, Science & Technology

Which private firm launched India’s first private rocket, Vikram-S?

  1. Agnikul Cosmos
  2. Skyroot Aerospace
  3. Bellatrix Aerospace
  4. Astrome Labs

Answer: B. Vikram-S ('Prarambh' mission), built by Hyderabad's Skyroot Aerospace , was India's first privately built rocket. It was launched from Sriharikota on 18 November 2022 and named after Vikram Sarabhai. Agnikul Cosmos launched Agnibaan SOrTeD (a 3D-printed engine) in 2024.

Q69 · Biology

What is the primary function of the grey matter in the human brain?

  1. Regulating heart rate and breathing
  2. Transmitting signals between body and brain
  3. Processing information and decision-making
  4. Producing cerebrospinal fluid

Answer: C. Grey matter (neuron cell bodies, found in the cerebral cortex and spinal cord core) processes information: thinking, memory, decision-making and sensory perception. White matter (myelinated axons) transmits signals. The medulla oblongata regulates heart rate and breathing.

Q70 · Biology

In the context of reproductive technologies, what is the primary role of IVF (In Vitro Fertilization)?

  1. To clone embryos for medical research
  2. To enable natural fertilization in uterus
  3. To assist fertilization outside the body and implant the embryo
  4. To prevent hormonal imbalance during pregnancy

Answer: C. IVF : eggs are fertilised by sperm in a lab dish ('in vitro' = in glass), and the embryo is then transferred into the uterus. It is a type of ART. The world's first IVF baby was Louise Brown (UK, 1978), and India's was Durga (Kanupriya Agarwal, Kolkata, 1978, by Dr Subhas Mukherjee).

Q71 · Geography

What is the term used to describe the area from which a river collects its surface runoff?

  1. Catchment area
  2. Delta
  3. Estuary
  4. Tributary

Answer: A. The catchment area (or drainage basin) is the area drained by a river and its tributaries. The boundary separating two basins is a water divide (watershed). A delta is formed at the mouth by deposition, and an estuary is a tidal river mouth.

Q72 · Geography

Which of the following statements best describes the Indian drainage system?

  1. It is entirely man-made, developed post-independence.
  2. It includes only perennial Himalayan rivers.
  3. It includes rivers shaped by terrain and rainfall
  4. It is based on political boundaries and canal networks.

Answer: C. India's drainage system is natural, controlled by relief (terrain) and rainfall . It is divided into Himalayan rivers (perennial, fed by snow and rain, e.g. Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra) and Peninsular rivers (seasonal, rain-fed, e.g. Godavari, Krishna, Narmada).

Q73 · Art & Culture

Which of the following vocal forms is characterized by its emphasis on the intricate development of a single raga, often with a slow, elaborate alaap followed by compositions set to complex talas?

  1. Thumri
  2. Dhrupad
  3. Tappa
  4. Khayal

Answer: B. Dhrupad is the oldest surviving Hindustani vocal form. It is austere and spiritual, with a long, slow alaap (nom-tom) followed by a composition to the pakhawaj in talas like Chautal. Tansen and Baiju Bawra were exponents; the Dagar family carries it today. Khayal is more flexible and ornamented.

Q74 · Art & Culture

Which category of musical instruments does the Pakhawaj primarily belong to?

  1. Aerophone
  2. Idiophone
  3. Membranophone
  4. Chordophone

Answer: C. The Pakhawaj is a barrel-shaped double-headed drum, so it is a membranophone (sound from a stretched membrane). Instrument classes: aerophones (wind, e.g. flute, shehnai), chordophones (strings, e.g. sitar, veena), idiophones (the body itself vibrates, e.g. ghatam, manjira).

Q75 · Economy

What was the primary focus of India’s Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992-1997)?

  1. Heavy industrialization under public sector
  2. Rapid infrastructure development
  3. Employment generation and human development
  4. Import substitution and self-reliance

Answer: C. The Eighth Plan (1992–97) was the first plan after the 1991 reforms (there were Annual Plans 1990–92). Its main aim was human resource development — employment, education, health, population control — with market-friendly growth. It is associated with PM Narasimha Rao and FM Manmohan Singh.

Q76 · Economy

The stringent industrial licensing regime in India (pre-1991) often led to which unintended consequence for established firms, despite aiming to prevent monopolies?

  1. Excessive foreign competition.
  2. Rapid expansion of small-scale industries.
  3. Reduced incentive for technological upgradation and efficiency.
  4. Increased diversification into global markets.

Answer: C. Under the pre-1991 Licence-Permit Raj , entry and expansion needed licences, so established firms faced little competition. The result was low incentive to modernise, poor quality and inefficiency , and 'licence hoarding'. The 1991 policy abolished licensing for most industries.

Q77 · Economy

A critical challenge faced by Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India during the 1947-1990 period, beyond just financial losses, was often related to:

  1. Lack of a clear social objective in their mandates.
  2. Excessive decentralization of decision-making authority.
  3. Bureaucratic rigidities and political interference in their operations.
  4. Absence of skilled labor and management expertise.

Answer: C. Public sector enterprises in 1947–90 were meant to build the 'commanding heights', but they suffered from bureaucratic control, political interference in appointments and pricing, over-staffing and soft budgets. These drove losses and led to later disinvestment and the MoU/Navratna autonomy reforms.

Q78 · Art & Culture

Which of the following statements correctly describes the linguistic landscape of India? 1. The Indo-Aryan language family covers the largest geographical area and has the highest number of speakers in India. 2. All languages spoken in the state of Odisha belong exclusively to the Indo-Aryan family. 3. Tamil Nadu and Kerala primarily speak Dravidian languages.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Only 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: C. Indo-Aryan languages cover the largest area and speakers (about 78%). Odisha also has Munda (Austroasiatic) and Dravidian tribal languages like Kui and Gondi, so statement 2 is wrong. Tamil Nadu and Kerala mainly speak Dravidian languages (Tamil, Malayalam), so statement 3 is correct.

Q79 · Sports

How many points are awarded to the defending team for a 'Super Tackle’ in Kabaddi?

  1. No points, only revival of a player.
  2. 2 points
  3. 1 point
  4. 3 points

Answer: B. A Super Tackle happens when the defending side has 3 or fewer players and tackles the raider. The defence gets 2 points (1 extra bonus point), and one out player is revived. Kabaddi is played on a rectangular court (10 m × 13 m for men).

Q80 · Polity & Governance

Under which specific condition does the Parliament gain the power to legislate on a subject enumerated in the State List, even in the absence of an emergency or state request?

  1. If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority that it is necessary in the national interest.
  2. If the President issues an ordinance declaring such a need.
  3. If the Lok Sabha passes a resolution by a simple majority deeming it necessary for national welfare.
  4. If the Prime Minister, in consultation with the Attorney General, recommends it for urgent public policy.

Answer: A. Under Article 249 , if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting that it is necessary in the national interest, Parliament can make laws on a State List subject. The resolution lasts one year and can be extended by one more year at a time.

Q81 · Medieval History

Consider the roles of the three powers in the Tripartite Struggle: 1. The Gurjara-Pratiharas were the only power to consistently hold Kannauj throughout the struggle. 2. The Rashtrakutas, though based in the Deccan, frequently intervened in the struggle to assert their supremacy. 3. The Palas, after an initial period of strength, eventually lost their influence in the struggle for Kannauj.

  1. Only 1 and 2
  2. Only 2 and 3
  3. Only 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: B. The Tripartite Struggle (8th–10th century) was fought for Kannauj between the Palas (Bengal), Gurjara-Pratiharas (western India) and Rashtrakutas (Deccan). Kannauj changed hands several times, so statement 1 is wrong. The Rashtrakutas (Dhruva, Govinda III, Indra III) raided north repeatedly, and the Pala power weakened after Dharmapala and Devapala. Ultimately the Pratiharas held Kannauj longest.

Q82 · Art & Culture

Which of the following pairs correctly describes a fundamental aspect of Indian classical music?

  1. Raga : The system of rhythmic cycles in a composition
  2. Tala : A specific melodic structure or mode
  3. Hindustani Music : Developed under significant Turko-Persian cultural influence
  4. Carnatic Music : Primarily characterized by strict improvisation without pre-composed elements

Answer: C. Hindustani music developed in north India under Turko-Persian and Sufi influence at the Delhi Sultanate and Mughal courts (Amir Khusrau, Tansen). Raga is the melodic framework, tala the rhythmic cycle. Carnatic music is more kriti- and composition-centred.

Q83 · Modern History

Which land revenue system allowed individual peasants to pay directly to the colonial state?

  1. Zamindari System
  2. Mahalwari System
  3. Ryotwari System
  4. Permanent Settlement

Answer: C. The Ryotwari System was introduced by Thomas Munro and Alexander Read in Madras (1820) and later Bombay. Settlement was made directly with each peasant (ryot), who paid revenue to the state. Permanent Settlement (Cornwallis, 1793) was with zamindars, and the Mahalwari system (Holt Mackenzie, 1822) was with the village community (mahal).

Q84 · Sports

Where was the All India Inter-University Men's Kabaddi Championship 2023-24 held?

  1. Panaji, Goa
  2. Kurukshetra, Haryana
  3. Udupi, Karnataka
  4. Mumbai, Maharashtra

Answer: C. As per the answer key, the All India Inter-University Men's Kabaddi Championship 2023–24 (conducted by the Association of Indian Universities) was held at Udupi, Karnataka .

Q85 · Sports

Consider the following statements and choose the correct option: 1. Kabaddi is played on a circular court in international matches. 2. Touch play is a term used in Kho-Kho. 3. En Passant is a chess tactic.

  1. Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. All 1,2 and 3 are correct

Answer: B. International kabaddi is played on a rectangular court, so statement 1 is wrong. ' Touch ' (tapping a sitting chaser to give him the chase) is a Kho-Kho term, so statement 2 is correct. En passant is a special pawn capture in chess, so statement 3 is correct.

Q86 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Who is the Prime Minister of India as of July 2025?

  1. Rahul Gandhi
  2. Droupadi Murmu
  3. Amit Shah
  4. Narendra Modi

Answer: D. Narendra Modi has been Prime Minister since May 2014. He began his third consecutive term on 9 June 2024 after the 2024 Lok Sabha election, becoming the first since Nehru to win three consecutive terms.

Q87 · Economy

What is the estimated total government expenditure for India in 2025-26 according to the Budget?

  1. =15 lakh crore
  2. £40 lakh crore
  3. 50.6 lakh crore
  4. =75 lakh crore

Answer: C. The Union Budget 2025–26 was presented by Nirmala Sitharaman on 1 February 2025. Total expenditure was estimated at ₹50.65 lakh crore , and total receipts other than borrowings at ₹34.96 lakh crore. The fiscal deficit target was 4.4% of GDP.

Q88 · Economy

According to the 2025 budget, by what year does India aim to reduce central government debt to 50% of GDP?

  1. March 2028
  2. March 2029
  3. March 2030
  4. March 2031

Answer: D. The Budget 2025–26 shifted the fiscal anchor from deficit to debt . It aims to bring Central government debt to about 50 ± 1% of GDP by 31 March 2031 .

Q89 · Economy

Which sector saw the entry of new private Indian and foreign banks due to post-1991 reforms?

  1. Textile
  2. Banking
  3. Mining
  4. Railways

Answer: B. The 1991 Narasimham Committee reforms allowed new private banks (e.g. HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, Axis/UTI Bank, IndusInd from 1994) and more foreign banks. They also cut SLR/CRR, deregulated interest rates and introduced prudential norms.

Q90 · Economy

The New Economic Policy 1991 aimed to reduce fiscal deficit to what medium-term percentage of GDP?

  1. 10.00%
  2. 7.0%
  3. 3-4%
  4. 8-9%

Answer: C. The 1991 New Economic Policy (stabilisation) targeted bringing the Centre's fiscal deficit down from about 8.4% of GDP (1990–91) to about 3–4% over the medium term, through expenditure control, subsidy cuts and tax reform.

Q91 · Economy

What major 2025 reform now ranks Indian states on investment friendliness for EoDB?

  1. State GDP growth rate
  2. State SDG Index
  3. State Investment Index
  4. Universal Social Index

Answer: C. Budget 2025–26 announced an Investment Friendliness Index of States to rank states on how easy they make it to invest, as part of Ease of Doing Business reforms. The key labels it the 'State Investment Index'.

Q92 · Polity & Governance

Which act provides the legislative framework for the use of electronic evidence in courts from July 2024?

  1. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
  2. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
  3. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
  4. Uniform Civil Code

Answer: C. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act from 1 July 2024. It treats electronic and digital records (emails, server logs, smartphone and location data) as documents/primary evidence with the same legal effect as paper records.

Q93 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Who serves as the President of India as of July 2025?

  1. Droupadi Murmu
  2. Ram Nath Kovind
  3. Pratibha Patil
  4. Venkaiah Naidu

Answer: A. Droupadi Murmu is the 15th President of India (took office 25 July 2022). She is the first tribal (Santhal) and second woman President, after Pratibha Patil. She was earlier Governor of Jharkhand.

Q94 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

As per 2025, the UDAN scheme seeks to expand connectivity to how many new destinations?

  1. 12
  2. 50
  3. 120
  4. 250

Answer: C. UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik, launched 2016) is a regional air-connectivity scheme. Budget 2025–26 announced a modified UDAN to connect 120 new destinations and carry 4 crore more passengers over 10 years, including helipads and small airports in hilly and North-Eastern areas.

Q95 · Physics

Acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately?

  1. 4.9 m/s?
  2. 9.8 m/s?
  3. 6.67 m/s?
  4. 10.6 m/s?

Answer: B. Standard acceleration due to gravity on Earth is g ≈ 9.8 m/s² . It is greatest at the poles and least at the equator, and it decreases with height and depth. On the Moon g is about 1.62 m/s², roughly 1/6th of Earth's. (6.67 is the number in G, the universal gravitational constant, 6.67×10⁻¹¹ N·m²/kg².)

Q96 · Art & Culture

Which festival is celebrated by tying a 'rakhi’ for symbolizing sibling love?

  1. Pongal
  2. Raksha Bandhan
  3. Eid
  4. Guru Purnima

Answer: B. Raksha Bandhan falls on Shravan Purnima: sisters tie a rakhi on brothers' wrists, symbolising protection and sibling love. In 1905 Rabindranath Tagore used it against the Partition of Bengal as a symbol of Hindu–Muslim unity.

Q97 · Art & Culture

In which festival are diyas and fireworks important due to the return of Lord Rama to Ayodhya, but is also the peak business season for sweets and gifts?

  1. Diwali
  2. Eid
  3. Holi
  4. Christmas

Answer: A. Diwali (Kartik Amavasya) celebrates Rama's return to Ayodhya after 14 years of exile and his victory over Ravana. Lamps (diyas), Lakshmi puja and fireworks mark it, and it is the peak retail season. For Jains it marks Mahavira's nirvana, and for Sikhs it is Bandi Chhor Divas.

Q98 · Environment & Ecology

Which city was ranked as the most polluted in the world in the World Air Quality Report 2025?

  1. Beijing
  2. Delhi
  3. Lahore
  4. Loni

Answer: D. IQAir publishes the World Air Quality Report , which ranks cities by average PM2.5. The answer key names Loni (Ghaziabad, UP) for the 2025 report. In the 2024 report, Byrnihat (Meghalaya) topped, and Delhi was the most polluted capital.

Q99 · Sports

What is the weight of the metal ball used in the shot-put event for male athletes?

  1. 8.84 kg
  2. 6.84 kg
  3. 7.26 kg
  4. 8.26 kg

Answer: C. The men's shot put weighs 7.26 kg (16 lb), and the women's weighs 4 kg. It is thrown from a 2.135 m circle. Tajinderpal Singh Toor is India's national record-holder.

Q100 · Modern History

Who was the first woman from Rajasthan to be arrested during the Indian freedom movement?

  1. Anjana Devi
  2. Nagendra Bala
  3. Rama Devi
  4. Bhikaji Cama

Answer: A. Anjana Devi Chaudhary was the first woman from Rajasthan arrested in the freedom struggle (1930s, for mobilising peasants and women in the Bijolia/Begun peasant movements and in Mewar). Along with her husband Ram Narayan Chaudhary, she worked with Gandhian organisations in Rajasthan.

10 Sep, Shift 1

Q51 · Ancient History

Which of the following correctly matches Chalcolithic sites with their cultural features?

  1. Kayatha — Black and Red Ware; early Harappan traits
  2. Navdatoli - Painted pottery; located on Narmada river
  3. Jorwe - Microlith tools; evidence of urban planning
  4. Nevasa — Iron tools; early Vedic settlements

Answer: B. Navdatoli (on the Narmada, opposite Maheshwar, MP) is a Malwa-culture Chalcolithic site known for painted black-on-red pottery and early crops like wheat, rice and lentils. Chalcolithic cultures used copper and stone tools, including microliths. Jorwe (Maharashtra), Kayatha (MP) and Ahar-Banas (Rajasthan) are other key cultures. Iron and urban planning were not features of this phase.

Q52 · Medieval History

Which of the following correctly matches the Bahmani successor states with their respective founders?

  1. Bijapur — Yusuf Adil Shah; Ahmadnagar - Malik Ambar; Golconda — Quli Qutb-ul-Mulk
  2. Ahmadnagar - Malik Ahmad Nizam Shah; Golconda — Yusuf Adil Shah; Bidar - Qasim Barid I
  3. Bijapur — Yusuf Adil Shah; Ahmadnagar — Malik Ahmad Nizam Shah; Golconda — Quli Qutb-ul-Mulk
  4. Berar — Quli Qutb-ul-Mulk; Bidar - Yusuf Adil Shah; Golconda - Malik Ambar

Answer: C. The Bahmani Sultanate split into five Deccan Sultanates: Bijapur (Adil Shahi, Yusuf Adil Shah, 1490), Ahmadnagar (Nizam Shahi, Malik Ahmad Nizam Shah, 1490), Golconda (Qutb Shahi, Quli Qutb-ul-Mulk, 1518), Berar (Imad Shahi, Fathullah Imad-ul-Mulk) and Bidar (Barid Shahi, Qasim Barid). Four of them defeated Vijayanagara at Talikota in 1565.

Q53 · Modern History

The abolition of Sati in 1829 by Lord William Bentinck was a landmark reform in British India. Which of the following statements best explains the complex motivations behind this legislative action?

  1. It was purely a humanitarian intervention by the British, motivated solely by concern for Indian women’s welfare.
  2. It aimed to curb a widespread religious practice that had the unanimous support of Indian society and religious leaders
  3. It combined moral reform influenced by Indian social reformers with British imperial interests in strengthening colonial authority and legitimacy.
  4. It was imposed without any consultation with Indian reformers and faced no opposition from traditional elites.

Answer: C. Bengal Sati Regulation XVII (1829) under Lord William Bentinck banned sati. It followed a long campaign by Raja Ram Mohan Roy , who argued the scriptures did not require it. Historians note the ban also served the colonial 'civilising mission' that justified British rule, so both reformist and imperial motives were at work.

Q54 · Modern History

While the greased cartridge controversy is often seen as the immediate trigger for the 1857 Revolt, which of the following best explains how systemic discrimination against sepoys played a critical role in converting discontent into armed rebellion?

  1. Sepoys were given equal promotions with British soldiers but were required to serve only within Indi
  2. Sepoys were subjected to religious and cultural sensitivities by the British, which strengthened loyalty to the colonial army.
  3. Sepoys faced unequal pay, lack of promotional opportunities, overseas service rules violating caste norms, and racial disrespect, all of which created deep-seated resentment even before the cartridge issue.
  4. Sepoys were allowed to form unions and raise complaints through official military channels, but their demands were ignored due to budget constraints.

Answer: C. The greased Enfield cartridges were only the spark. Deeper grievances made sepoys ready to revolt: low pay compared with British soldiers, no promotion beyond subedar, racial insults , the General Service Enlistment Act 1856 (forced overseas service, which broke caste taboos) and the loss of the foreign-service allowance (bhatta). Mangal Pandey (Barrackpore, 29 March 1857) and the Meerut revolt (10 May) followed.

Q55 · Polity & Governance

Regarding Fiscal Federalism in India, which of the following statements correctly explains the constitutional framework and practical challenges related to financial relations between the Union and the States?

  1. The Finance Commission's recommendations are binding on the Union and the States, and the President is constitutionally obligated to implement them without any modifications.
  2. Article 280 mandates the appointment of a Finance Commission every five years to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States, but its recommendations are advisory and not binding.
  3. Under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime, the States have completely ceded their taxation powers to the Union, making fiscal federalism obsolete in India.
  4. The Constitution grants equal financial autonomy to all States irrespective of their revenue-generating capacities or development levels, ensuring uniform fiscal federalism.

Answer: B. Article 280 requires a Finance Commission every five years . It recommends how tax revenue is divided between the Union and states (vertical) and among states (horizontal), and grants-in-aid under Article 275. The 16th FC is chaired by Arvind Panagariya. Challenges: vertical fiscal imbalance, cesses and surcharges outside the divisible pool, and GST compensation.

Q56 · Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements best captures the constitutional debate and judicial stance on the implementation of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India?

  1. Article 44 of the Directive Principles mandates the immediate enforcement of a Uniform Civil Code, making it legally binding on all States and citizens without exception.
  2. The Supreme Court in Shah Bano (1985) and Daniel Latifi (2001) ruled that a Uniform Civil Code already exists in India and must be strictly followed in all personal law matters.
  3. Article 44 in the Directive Principles of State Policy urges the State to consider enacting a Uniform Civil Code, but it is not enforceable by courts; implementation requires a parliamentary law balancing secularism and religious freedoms.
  4. The Constitution explicitly prohibits the enactment of a Uniform Civil Code to protect religious minorities under Articles 25 to 28.

Answer: C. Article 44 (DPSP) says the State shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code, but it is non-justiciable. The Supreme Court (Shah Bano 1985, Sarla Mudgal 1995, Shayara Bano 2017) has urged a UCC but left enactment to the legislature. Goa has a common civil code, and Uttarakhand enacted a UCC in 2024 (in force from January 2025).

Q57 · Geography

Which of the following statements best explains how the Theory of Plate Tectonics provides a comprehensive framework for understanding the distribution of earthquakes, volcanoes, and mountain-building processes across the Earth's surface?

  1. Plate tectonics explains crustal deformation exclusively at convergent boundaries, with no significant tectonic activity observed along divergent or transform boundaries.
  2. The movement of lithospheric plates over the asthenosphere is driven by slab pull, ridge push, and mantle convection currents, leading to varied geological phenomena like ocean trench formation, rift valleys, and fault lines.
  3. The Himalayas were formed by oceanic-continental convergence, resulting in subduction and volcanic mountain formation along the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
  4. Plate tectonics states that major tectonic activity is confined to oceanic crust, while continental plates are geologically stable and unaffected by internal earth processes.

Answer: B. Plate tectonics : rigid lithospheric plates move over the soft asthenosphere, driven by mantle convection, ridge push and slab pull. Earthquakes, volcanoes and fold mountains concentrate at plate boundaries (divergent, convergent, transform). The Himalayas formed by continent–continent collision of the Indian and Eurasian plates.

Q58 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following statements about India’s proposed Bharatiya Antariksh Station is most accurate considering ISRO's current plans and global space collaboration dynamics?

  1. The Bharatiya Antariksh Station is expected to be permanently crewed with international astronauts and function as a rival to the ISS by 2025.
  2. It is being designed as a modular low Earth orbit station to support microgravity research and long-term human presence, with a proposed launch window post-2035.
  3. ISRO plans to establish the station in geostationary orbit to facilitate continuous observation of Earth and uninterrupted communication.
  4. The station will be launched using a modified version of the PSLV and is intended to remain operational for no more than 6 months at a time.

Answer: B. The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) is India's planned modular space station in low Earth orbit (about 400–450 km). The first module (BAS-1) is targeted for 2028 and full operation by 2035. It will support microgravity research and long-duration human presence after Gaganyaan.

Q59 · Biology

Which of the following statements correctly describes the principle and practical applications of plant tissue culture, along with its associated limitations?

  1. Tissue culture involves the genetic modification of plants through direct DNA insertion in soil, primarily used for creating genetically modified crops resistant to pests.
  2. Tissue culture is a technique of growing plant cells, tissues, or organs aseptically on a nutrient medium under controlled environmental conditions, widely used for rapid clonal propagation, but is limited by the risk of somaclonal variation and contamination.
  3. Tissue culture exclusively involves the use of mature seeds to generate new plants and is primarily employed in traditional breeding programs.
  4. Tissue culture requires open-air conditions and is mostly used for studying plant ecology and natural habitat restoration without any commercial applications.

Answer: B. Plant tissue culture grows cells, tissues or organs on a sterile nutrient medium under controlled conditions. It relies on totipotency , the ability of a single cell to grow into a whole plant. Uses: micropropagation (banana, orchids), virus-free plants via meristem culture, and somatic hybrids. Limitations: high cost, contamination risk, and genetic uniformity (somaclonal variation).

Q60 · Chemistry

Which component of tea acts as an antioxidant?

  1. Tannins
  2. Theaflavins
  3. Caffeine
  4. Saponins

Answer: B. Theaflavins (and thearubigins) are polyphenols formed when tea leaves are fermented/oxidised to make black tea. They are powerful antioxidants and give the colour and 'brightness'. Green tea's main antioxidant is catechin (EGCG). Caffeine is a stimulant and tannins cause astringency.

Q61 · Environment & Ecology

Which of the following best explains why pyrolysis is considered a more sustainable method for managing plastic waste compared to traditional incineration or landfilling?

  1. Pyrolysis requires higher oxygen levels and generates more CO» than incineration, thus enabling faster decomposition.
  2. Pyrolysis transforms plastic waste into reusable gases, oils, and char without combustion, thereby reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
  3. Pyrolysis converts plastic into biodegradable polymers that can be reused directly in agriculture.
  4. Pyrolysis reduces plastic volume by 90% through combustion, producing energy-intensive ash used in road construction.

Answer: B. Pyrolysis heats plastic at high temperature in the absence of oxygen , breaking it into pyrolysis oil, gas (syngas) and char. These can be used as fuel or feedstock. Because there is no burning, it releases fewer toxic dioxins and CO₂ than incineration and saves landfill space.

Q62 · Economy

In the context of post-liberalization economic governance in India, what does the concept of ‘Minimum Government, Maximum Governance’ fundamentally imply, and how does it reflect a shift in the role of the state?

  1. It advocates complete withdrawal of the government from all sectors, including regulation and welfare
  2. It promotes a downsized state that focuses on facilitation, efficiency, and citizen-centric service delivery rather than direct control and ownership
  3. It empowers public sector enterprises through greater subsidies and budgetary allocations
  4. It mandates maximum centralization of powers for stronger decision-making and quicker implementation

Answer: B. 'Minimum Government, Maximum Governance' means a leaner state that facilitates rather than controls . It stresses efficient, transparent, citizen-centric delivery through e-governance, DBT and decriminalisation, and leaves business to markets. It does not mean the state withdraws completely.

Q63 · Economy

Which of the following best explains the core philosophy and operational implications of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), 1973, and why it became incompatible with India’s post-1991 economic reforms?

  1. FERA was a liberal law that facilitated easy foreign currency inflows and allowed convertibility on capital account.
  2. FERA treated foreign exchange as a scarce commodity and imposed criminal liability for even minor violations.
  3. FERA primarily regulated exports and agricultural pricing to stabilize the rupee.
  4. FERA was introduced to replace FEMA due to increased globalization.

Answer: B. FERA, 1973 treated foreign exchange as scarce and tightly controlled it. Violations were criminal offences, with the burden of proof on the accused, and foreign equity was capped at 40%. It clashed with liberalisation and was replaced by the civil FEMA, 1999 (in force 2000), whose aim is to 'facilitate' foreign exchange management.

Q64 · Geography

Which state in India is the largest producer of manganese?

  1. Odisha
  2. Karnataka
  3. Maharashtra
  4. Madhya Pradesh

Answer: A. Odisha is the largest producer of manganese (about a third of output, Keonjhar and Sundargarh). It is followed by Madhya Pradesh (Balaghat), Maharashtra (Nagpur–Bhandara) and Karnataka. Manganese is essential for steel-making (ferro-manganese).

Q65 · Geography

What does a low population doubling time indicate about a country’s population growth, and where in India is this most evident?

  1. Rapid urbanization in western states
  2. High fertility in northern and eastern India
  3. Economic development in coastal states
  4. In-migration to metro cities

Answer: B. Doubling time is the years a population takes to double (about 70 ÷ growth rate %). A low doubling time means fast growth. In India this shows in high-fertility northern and eastern states like Bihar, UP, Jharkhand, MP and Rajasthan (Bihar TFR about 3). Southern states are already below replacement level.

Q66 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Which of the following indexes is published by the Institute for Economics and Peace and reflects social stability and safety levels across countries?

  1. Democracy Index
  2. Global Peace Index
  3. World Justice Index
  4. Freedom in the World Index

Answer: B. The Global Peace Index is published by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP), Sydney . It ranks about 163 countries on societal safety, ongoing conflict and militarisation. Iceland has ranked most peaceful since 2008. The Democracy Index is by the EIU, and Freedom in the World by Freedom House.

Q67 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Which scheme is aimed at boosting domestic manufacturing by offering financial incentives on incremental sales?

  1. Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
  2. PLI Scheme
  3. Stand-Up India
  4. National Skill Qualification Framework

Answer: B. The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme (from 2020) pays companies 4–6% incentives on incremental sales of goods made in India, over a base year. It covers 14 sectors, including mobile phones, pharma, auto, solar PV, ACC batteries and textiles, in support of Make in India and Aatmanirbhar Bharat.

Q68 · Environment & Ecology

Which of the following Elephant Reserves is correctly matched with its state?

  1. Agasthiyamalai ER - Andhra Pradesh
  2. Singhbhum ER - Odisha
  3. Anamalai ER — Tamil Nadu
  4. Coimbatore ER — Karnataka

Answer: C. Anamalai Elephant Reserve is in Tamil Nadu (Coimbatore–Tiruppur). Correct matches for the distractors: Agasthiyamalai ER (TN–Kerala), Singhbhum ER (Jharkhand), Coimbatore ER (TN). Project Elephant was launched in 1992, and India has about 33 elephant reserves.

Q69 · Polity & Governance

The translation in Hindi of every Constitutional Amendment Act was inserted through which Amendment Act?

  1. 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  2. 58th Amendment Act, 1987
  3. 44th Amendment Act, 1978
  4. 61st Amendment Act, 1989

Answer: B. The 58th Amendment (1987) inserted Article 394A. It lets the President publish an authoritative Hindi translation of the Constitution and of every amendment. The 61st Amendment (1989) cut the voting age from 21 to 18.

Q70 · Polity & Governance

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, how is a “cognizable offence” defined?

  1. An offence in which the accused must be released on bail immediately.
  2. An offence where a complaint must be filed only by a Magistrate.
  3. An offence for which a police officer can arrest without a warrant.
  4. An offence that is only triable in Sessions Court.

Answer: C. Under the BNSS, 2023 (Section 2(1)(g)), a cognizable offence is one in which police can arrest without a warrant and start investigating without a Magistrate's order (e.g. murder, rape, theft). A non-cognizable offence needs a warrant and a Magistrate's permission to investigate.

Q71 · Geography

What is the most accepted explanation for the Moon's origin?

  1. Capture theory
  2. Co-formation theory
  3. Giant impact hypothesis
  4. Fission theory

Answer: C. The Giant Impact hypothesis is the most accepted explanation for the Moon's origin. About 4.5 billion years ago a Mars-sized body called Theia collided with the early Earth, and the debris coalesced into the Moon. Apollo rock samples support it through the similar isotopes of the Moon and Earth.

Q72 · Modern History

Who was known for her role in India's freedom struggle and became the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state?

  1. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay
  2. Sucheta Kriplani
  3. Arun Chandra Guha
  4. Srimanta Sankardeva

Answer: B. Sucheta Kripalani took part in the Quit India Movement and was a member of the Constituent Assembly. She became India's first woman Chief Minister (Uttar Pradesh, 1963–67). The first woman Governor was Sarojini Naidu (UP, 1947).

Q73 · Physics

A 60 kg man runs up a 15 m high staircase in 30 seconds. What is the average power developed by him (take g = 10 m/s?)?

  1. 300 W
  2. 350 W
  3. 100 w
  4. 250 W

Answer: A. Power = work ÷ time = mgh ÷ t = (60 × 10 × 15) ÷ 30 = 9000 ÷ 30 = 300 W . The SI unit of power is the watt (1 W = 1 J/s), and 1 horsepower = 746 W.

Q74 · Economy

Which of the following is NOT a dimension of HDI?

  1. Life expectancy
  2. Educational attainment
  3. Per capita income
  4. Pollution levels

Answer: D. The UNDP's Human Development Index (Mahbub ul Haq and Amartya Sen, 1990) has three dimensions: a long and healthy life (life expectancy), knowledge (mean and expected years of schooling), and a decent standard of living (GNI per capita, PPP). Pollution is not a component.

Q75 · Geography

Read the statements below and choose the correct option: Statement 1: Groundnut is a rabi crop and contributes minimally to India’s total oilseed production. Statement 2: Linseed and mustard are grown mainly in the kharif season across all Indian states.

  1. Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: D. Groundnut is mainly a kharif crop and India's largest oilseed by value; Gujarat leads production. Mustard and linseed are rabi crops (Rajasthan leads mustard). So both statements are wrong.

Q76 · International Organisations & Relations

Which statement correctly describes India’s strategic use of SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region)?

  1. It supports exclusive control over South China Sea
  2. It promotes only bilateral maritime pacts with QUAD
  3. It promotes maritime ties with Indian Ocean states.
  4. It funds private sector port development in the Pacific

Answer: C. SAGAR — Security and Growth for All in the Region — was announced by PM Modi in Mauritius (2015). It is India's Indian Ocean vision: maritime security cooperation, capacity-building, HADR and blue economy with littoral states. It was expanded in 2025 as MAHASAGAR , covering the Global South.

Q77 · International Organisations & Relations

Which of the below statements is/are correct? Statement 1: Maldives withdrew from the Commonwealth in 2016 due to human rights concerns. Statement 2: India is not a member of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA).

  1. Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 are correct

Answer: A. The Maldives quit the Commonwealth in October 2016 after criticism over human rights and democracy, and rejoined in 2020, so statement 1 is correct. India is a founding member of IORA (1997, secretariat in Mauritius), so statement 2 is wrong.

Q78 · Space, Science & Technology

What does the magnetometer onboard Aditya-L1 satellite primarily measure in space?

  1. Solar radiation pressure
  2. Interplanetary magnetic field strength and direction
  3. Cosmic ray intensity
  4. Solar plasma temperature

Answer: B. Aditya-L1 (launched 2 September 2023, placed at Lagrange point L1 about 1.5 million km away) is India's first solar mission. Its magnetometer (MAG) measures the strength and direction of the interplanetary magnetic field . The other payloads are VELC (corona), SUIT (UV imaging), ASPEX and PAPA (solar wind), SoLEXS and HEL1OS (X-rays).

Q79 · Biology

Which of the following is an example of an homologous organ?

  1. Wings of a bird and wings of a butterfly
  2. Flippers of a whale and forelimbs of a human
  3. Eyes of an octopus and eyes of a human
  4. Sweet potato and potato (as storage organs)

Answer: B. Homologous organs have the same basic structure and origin but different functions, showing divergent evolution. Examples: the whale flipper, human arm, bat wing and horse leg. Analogous organs have different structure but similar function (convergent evolution), e.g. bird wing vs butterfly wing, or potato (stem) vs sweet potato (root).

Q80 · Geography

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched regarding crops grown in specific soil types?

  1. Alluvial Soil — Cotton
  2. Black Soil — Wheat
  3. Red Soil — Rice
  4. Laterite Soil -— Cashew nuts

Answer: D. Laterite soil forms by leaching in hot, wet climates. It is poor in fertility but suits cashew , tea, coffee and rubber, with cashew grown on the Kerala, Karnataka and Goa laterites. Black (regur) soil suits cotton, alluvial soil suits rice and wheat, and red soil suits millets and pulses.

Q81 · Economy

Which of the following is not a component of India’s 1991 economic reforms?

  1. Liberalisation
  2. Privatisation
  3. Socialisation
  4. Globalisation

Answer: C. The 1991 New Economic Policy rested on LPG : Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation. 'Socialisation' (greater state control) is the opposite of what the reforms aimed at.

Q82 · Economy

The Seventh Plan prioritized which theme along with industrial growth?

  1. Export-led growth
  2. Space exploration
  3. Social justice and employment
  4. Corporate tax cuts

Answer: C. The Seventh Plan (1985–90) , under Rajiv Gandhi, stressed ' Food, Work and Productivity ': growth with social justice, employment generation (Jawahar Rozgar Yojana, 1989) and modernisation. It was the last plan before the 1990–92 annual plans.

Q83 · Polity & Governance

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the subject and its respective list under the Seventh Schedule?

  1. Police - Union List
  2. Education- State List
  3. Trade and Commerce -Concurrent List
  4. Banking - State List

Answer: C. Correct placements: Police is on the State List , Banking is on the Union List , and Education moved to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976. Trade and commerce is split: inter-state trade is Union, trade within a state is State, and trade in products of controlled industries is on the Concurrent List (Entry 33). The key treats that as the correct pair.

Q84 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Which Indian artist’s signature use of bindis in her installations addresses identity and tradition?

  1. Bharti Kher
  2. Mithu Sen
  3. Ragib Shaw
  4. L.N. Tallur

Answer: A. Bharti Kher (born London, lives in Delhi) is famous for using the bindi as material and motif, e.g. 'The Skin Speaks a Language Not Its Own' (a bindi-covered elephant). Her work explores femininity, identity and tradition.

Q85 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Indian scientists were co-awardees of the 2025 Breakthrough Prize for their work with which CERN experiment?

  1. ALICE and CMS
  2. SOFIA
  3. Voyager
  4. Quantum Gravity Collaboration

Answer: A. The 2025 Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics went to the four big LHC collaborations at CERN (ATLAS, CMS, ALICE, LHCb) for work including the Higgs boson. Indian physicists share it through their membership of ALICE and CMS .

Q86 · Economy

Which fiscal policy tool is used by governments to influence aggregate demand?

  1. Repo rate
  2. Taxation & government spending
  3. Statutory Liquidity Ratio
  4. Bank rates

Answer: B. Fiscal policy is the government's use of taxation and public expenditure (and borrowing) to influence demand, growth and inflation. Repo rate, SLR, CRR and bank rate are monetary policy tools used by the RBI.

Q87 · Polity & Governance

Which Article gives Parliament exclusive power to make laws on items in the Union List?

  1. Article 245
  2. Article 246
  3. Article 248
  4. Article 254

Answer: B. Article 246 distributes legislative powers under the Seventh Schedule. Parliament has exclusive power over the Union List, states over the State List, and both over the Concurrent List. Art 245 is the extent of laws, Art 248 residuary powers, and Art 254 resolves Centre–State conflicts on concurrent subjects.

Q88 · Polity & Governance

Who appoints the Chief Minister of an Indian state?

  1. President
  2. Prime Minister
  3. Governor
  4. Lok Sabha

Answer: C. Under Article 164 , the Governor appoints the Chief Minister , and other ministers on the CM's advice. Similarly, the President appoints the Prime Minister under Article 75.

Q89 · Sports

What term describes doping violations recorded for indian athletes in world anti-doping reports?

  1. Code breach
  2. ADRVs (Anti-Doping Rule Violations)
  3. Match-fixing
  4. No ball

Answer: B. The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) records Anti-Doping Rule Violations (ADRVs) , e.g. presence of a banned substance, evading sample collection, or tampering. India has been among the countries with the most ADRVs in recent reports. NADA India implements the code domestically.

Q90 · Sports

Which Indian traditional sport involves “raiders” touching opponents and returning to their half?

  1. Archery
  2. Hockey
  3. Kabaddi
  4. Golf

Answer: C. In Kabaddi , a raider crosses into the opponents' half chanting 'kabaddi', tries to touch defenders and returns to his own half in one breath (a 30-second raid). It is the state game of several states. The Pro Kabaddi League began in 2014.

Q91 · Sports

In cricket, what is the “popping crease” ?

  1. Place to change bats
  2. Line beyond which batter is safe from run out
  3. Place for bowling coach
  4. Umpire’s seating line

Answer: B. The popping crease is the line 4 ft (1.22 m) in front of the stumps. A batter with bat or body grounded behind it is 'in', i.e. safe from run-out or stumping, and the bowler's front foot must land behind it (or it is a no-ball). The bowling crease is the line the stumps stand on.

Q92 · Polity & Governance

As of July 28, 2025, has the Uniform Civil Code been implemented across all Indian states?

  1. Yes, in all states
  2. Only in Uttarakhand
  3. Yes, except J&K
  4. No, not nationwide

Answer: D. The UCC has not been implemented nationwide . Uttarakhand became the first state to enact one (in force from 27 January 2025). Goa has long followed the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867.

Q93 · Polity & Governance

Who is regarded as the chief architect and Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  3. Rajendra Prasad
  4. Sardar Patel

Answer: B. Dr B.R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee (formed 29 August 1947, 7 members) and is called the 'Father/Chief Architect of the Constitution'. Dr Rajendra Prasad was President of the Constituent Assembly.

Q94 · Sports

Where is the ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup 2025 being held?

  1. Kolkata
  2. Delhi
  3. Various Indian cities (Bangalore, Guwahati, Indore, Visakhapatnam)
  4. Mumbai

Answer: C. The ICC Women's Cricket World Cup 2025 was hosted by India (with Sri Lanka) . The Indian venues listed were Bengaluru, Guwahati, Indore and Visakhapatnam; Navi Mumbai later replaced Bengaluru. India won the title, their first Women's World Cup, beating South Africa in the final in November 2025.

Q95 · Sports

Which Indian city will host the Men's FIH Hockey Junior World Cup in December 2025?

  1. Chennai and Madurai
  2. Delhi and Mumbai
  3. Kolkata and Ranchi
  4. Guwahati and Bhubaneswar

Answer: A. The FIH Hockey Men's Junior World Cup 2025 (Nov–Dec 2025) was held in Chennai and Madurai , Tamil Nadu, with an expanded 24 teams.

Q96 · Medieval History

The Ibadat Khana was established by Akbar in Fatehpur Sikri for what objective?

  1. To collect taxes
  2. For religious debates and interfaith dialogue
  3. Royal treasury
  4. Minting coins

Answer: B. Akbar built the Ibadat Khana (House of Worship) at Fatehpur Sikri in 1575. Scholars of different faiths — Sunni and Shia ulema, Hindus, Jains, Zoroastrians and Christians (Jesuits) — debated there. It led to his policy of Sulh-i-Kul (universal peace) and later Din-i-Ilahi (1582).

Q97 · Economy

Which statement best describes "globalisation" under economic reforms after 1991?

  1. Making exports illegal
  2. Reducing India’s global trade
  3. Integrating India with global market by reducing tariffs, export incentives, and FDI
  4. Strengthening government monopolies

Answer: C. Globalisation (1991) meant opening India to the world economy: cutting import tariffs and quotas, rupee devaluation and convertibility, encouraging FDI/FII, and later joining the WTO (1995).

Q98 · Polity & Governance

What is the meaning of "residuary powers" under the Indian Constitution?

  1. Powers only given to states
  2. Powers only to judiciary
  3. Powers not mentioned in any list, vested in Parliament
  4. All powers to Union Territories

Answer: C. Residuary powers — subjects not in any of the three lists — belong to Parliament under Article 248 and Entry 97 of the Union List. This was borrowed from Canada . In the USA, residuary powers lie with the states.

Q99 · Polity & Governance

Under the BNS 2023 (from July 2024), what is the punishment for death as a result of organised crime?

  1. Imprisonment up to 2 years
  2. Community service
  3. Death or life imprisonment
  4. Deportation

Answer: C. The BNS, 2023 (Section 111) created a new offence of organised crime . If it causes death, the punishment is death or life imprisonment plus a fine of at least ₹10 lakh. Petty organised crime is covered separately (Section 112).

Q100 · International Organisations & Relations

Which Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation member state serves as the host for the Permanent Secretariat?

  1. People’s Republic of Bangladesh
  2. Kingdom of the Thailand nation
  3. Republic of the India territory
  4. Democratic Socialist Sri Lanka

Answer: A. The BIMSTEC Permanent Secretariat is in Dhaka, Bangladesh (2014). BIMSTEC (1997, Bangkok Declaration) has 7 members: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand. Its Charter came into force in 2024.

10 Sep, Shift 2

Q51 · Medieval History

Which of the following was a major cause of conflict between the Vijayanagara Empire and the Bahmani Sultanate, occasionally escalating into full-scale wars?

  1. Dispute over access to the Arabian Sea ports and control of Gujarat trade
  2. Rival claims over the fertile Raichur Doab and tensions over economic practices like the levy on prostitution
  3. Religious proselytization campaigns initiated by Bahmani rulers in Tamil regions
  4. Succession disputes within the Vijayanagara royal family exploited by Bahmani allies

Answer: B. Vijayanagara and the Bahmanis fought mainly over the Raichur Doab , the fertile land between the Krishna and Tungabhadra, as well as the Tungabhadra–Krishna delta lands and Konkan ports like Goa. The long rivalry ended with the Battle of Talikota (1565).

Q52 · Art & Culture

Who is revered as the "Pitamaha of Karnataka Sangeeta" (Grandfather of Carnatic Music) for systematizing its pedagogy and devotional compositions?

  1. Tyagaraja
  2. Annamacharya
  3. Purandara Dasa
  4. Basavanna

Answer: C. Purandara Dasa (1484–1564), a Haridasa of the Vijayanagara period, is the 'Pitamaha of Carnatic music' . He standardised its teaching: Mayamalavagowla as the base raga, and graded lessons (sarali varisai, alankaras, geetams). The Carnatic Trinity came later (18th–19th century).

Q53 · Modern History

The Factories Act of 1881 is often criticized for being more aligned with British economic interests than Indian labor welfare. Which of the following provisions supports this interpretation?

  1. It introduced mandatory weekly holidays and daily work-hour limits for all factory workers.
  2. It prohibited child labor under the age of 14 and regulated adult working hours
  3. It imposed restrictions only on children, without addressing the working conditions of adult laborers.
  4. It ensured minimum wages and union rights for factory workers across British India.

Answer: C. The Factories Act, 1881 (under Lord Ripon) mainly regulated child labour : it barred children under 7 and limited those aged 7–12 to 9 hours a day. It ignored adult workers. Critics say Lancashire mill owners pushed for it to raise Indian textile costs. The 1891 Act extended some protection to women.

Q54 · Polity & Governance

The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 is considered a landmark in curbing political defections. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the most significant constitutional impact of this amendment?

  1. It inserted the Tenth Schedule in the Constitution, laying down the procedure for the impeachment of the President.
  2. It empowered the President to dismiss Members of Parliament for anti-party activities.
  3. It added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, providing the grounds for disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection.
  4. It gave the Election Commission the final authority to decide on disqualifications under the anti-defection law.

Answer: C. The 52nd Amendment (1985) under Rajiv Gandhi added the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) . It disqualifies legislators who voluntarily give up party membership or defy the party whip. The Speaker or Chairman decides. The 91st Amendment (2003) removed the 'split' exception and capped the size of ministries.

Q55 · Polity & Governance

The 44th Constitutional Amendment is often seen as a corrective to the excesses of the Emergency period. Which of the following best reflects the core constitutional safeguard reintroduced or strengthened by this amendment?

  1. It allowed the Parliament to suspend all Fundamental Rights during National Emergency.
  2. It made the Right to Property a fundamental right under Article 19 again.
  3. It mandated that National Emergency could be proclaimed only on written advice of the Council of Ministers and added safeguards against the misuse of Article 352.
  4. It gave the Prime Minister the unilateral power to dissolve the Lok Sabha during an Emergency.

Answer: C. The 44th Amendment (1978) , under the Janata government, reversed the Emergency excesses. A National Emergency now needs the written advice of the Cabinet , 'internal disturbance' was replaced by ' armed rebellion ', and Articles 20–21 cannot be suspended. It also removed the Right to Property as a Fundamental Right, making it a legal right under Article 300A.

Q56 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Who among the following translated her own award-winning Hindi novel into English, thus becoming the first author-translator pair to win the International Booker?

  1. Anamika
  2. Geetanjali Shree
  3. Krishna Sobti
  4. Meena Alexander

Answer: B. Geetanjali Shree's Hindi novel Ret Samadhi ('Tomb of Sand'), translated into English by Daisy Rockwell , won the International Booker Prize 2022 . It was the first book translated from any Indian language to win. (The prize is shared between author and translator; Shree did not translate it herself.) In 2025 Banu Mushtaq's 'Heart Lamp' (Kannada, translated by Deepa Bhasthi) won.

Q57 · Art & Culture

The anthropomorphic representation of the Buddha first appeared in Indian art through:

  1. Mauryan stone pillars
  2. Amaravati School of art
  3. Gandhara and Mathura schools
  4. Sanchi stupas

Answer: C. Early Buddhist art (Sanchi, Bharhut) showed the Buddha only through symbols : footprints, the Bodhi tree, the wheel, an empty seat. Human images of the Buddha first appeared around the 1st century CE under the Kushanas, in the Gandhara school (Greco-Roman, grey schist) and the Mathura school (indigenous, red sandstone).

Q58 · Art & Culture

What distinguishes Bharata Natyam from other Indian classical dance forms?

  1. Use of martial techniques and battle stances
  2. Acrobatics and puppet-like movements
  3. Temple origins, expressive gestures, and rhythmic footwork
  4. Folk elements with drum-based storytelling

Answer: C. Bharatanatyam (Tamil Nadu) comes from the devadasi temple tradition (Sadir). It follows the Natya Shastra and Abhinaya Darpana, with fixed geometric poses (aramandi), crisp footwork (adavus), expressive hastas and abhinaya. It was revived by Rukmini Devi Arundale (Kalakshetra, 1936).

Q59 · Polity & Governance

Which of the following reflects the correct legal and administrative authority of the Election Commission regarding the preparation of electoral rolls and the inclusion or exclusion of names?

  1. The Election Commission prepares electoral rolls in consultation with state governments and is bound by their recommendations.
  2. The Election Commission can suo motu include names of eligible citizens even without an application.
  3. The Election Commission supervises the preparation and revision of electoral rolls, but actual changes are made through Electoral Registration Officers, and citizens have the right to appeal exclusions.
  4. The President directly maintains the electoral rolls under Article 324 and forwards them to the Election Commission for use.

Answer: C. Under Article 324 , the ECI superintends and controls the preparation of electoral rolls. The actual inclusion and deletion of names is done by Electoral Registration Officers (ERO, usually an SDM) under the Representation of the People Act 1950, with claims, objections and appeals. The ECI does not add names on its own.

Q60 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following statements regarding the current landscape and challenges of space tourism is incorrect?

  1. Suborbital space tourism flights like those offered by Blue Origin and Virgin Galactic allow passengers to experience microgravity for a few minutes without completing a full orbit around Earth.
  2. Orbital space tourism missions, such as those launched by SpaceX, require significantly higher velocities and pose greater life-support and radiation protection challenges than suborbital flights.
  3. International treaties such as the Outer Space Treaty (1967) clearly define the legal liability and regulatory framework for commercial space tourists in all jurisdictions.
  4. One of the major technological challenges in scaling space tourism is developing reusable spacecraft that can endure multiple launches while ensuring passenger safety and cost-effectiveness.

Answer: C. The Outer Space Treaty (1967) and the Liability Convention (1972) were written for states. They do not clearly regulate private space tourism , so the claim that they clearly define liability for tourists is the incorrect statement. Suborbital tourism: Blue Origin, Virgin Galactic. Orbital: SpaceX Inspiration4 and Axiom missions.

Q61 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following accurately explains the reason Mars loses its atmosphere to space over time?

  1. Excess greenhouse gases causing evaporation
  2. High levels of sulfuric acid clouds
  3. Lack of a global magnetic field to deflect solar wind
  4. Presence of ozone destroying UV shield

Answer: C. Mars lost its global magnetic field (dynamo) billions of years ago. Without it, the solar wind strips away atmospheric gases (sputtering). NASA's MAVEN orbiter measured this loss. Its low gravity also makes escape easier.

Q62 · Space, Science & Technology

What are the groundbreaking scientific goals of NASA’s Parker Solar Probe, and which technological innovations enable it to survive the extreme conditions near the Sun?

  1. To map solar wind origins and study the Sun’s corona by flying closer than any previous mission, utilizing a carbon-composite heat shield and autonomous thermal regulation systems.
  2. To deploy a fleet of mini-satellites into Venus’s orbit for atmospheric studies, using solar sails and cryogenic cooling.
  3. To observe solar flares from Earth’s orbit and relay data via geostationary satellites, employing advanced adaptive optics for atmospheric correction.
  4. To land a probe on the Sun's surface to measure magnetic fields directly, using a reinforced titanium hull and liquid helium cooling.

Answer: A. NASA's Parker Solar Probe (2018) studies the corona and the origin of the solar wind. On 24 December 2024 it made the closest-ever approach to the Sun, about 6.1 million km, at about 690,000 km/h. A carbon-composite heat shield (Thermal Protection System, about 11.4 cm thick) keeps the instruments near room temperature. It is named after Eugene Parker.

Q63 · Biology

Which of the following statements best describes the transcriptome, its biological significance, and its distinction from the genome and proteome in cellular function analysis?

  1. The transcriptome refers to the complete set of proteins synthesized by a cell, helping determine the final phenotype regardless of gene expression levels.
  2. The transcriptome comprises only the DNA sequences of coding genes and remains constant across different cell types and developmental stages.
  3. The transcriptome is the full range of RNA molecules—including MRNA, rRNA, tRNA, and non-coding RNAs—transcribed from the genome at a given time, and its dynamic nature allows insight into gene expression regulation, cell differentiation, and disease mechanisms.
  4. The transcriptome includes all epigenetic modifications on DNA and histone proteins that regulate transcription without altering the RNA sequence, making it a part of the permanent genetic code.

Answer: C. Genome = all the DNA of an organism. Transcriptome = all RNA molecules transcribed at a given time (mRNA, rRNA, tRNA, non-coding RNA); it varies by cell type and condition, so it shows which genes are active. Proteome = all proteins expressed.

Q64 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following statements best describes the technological features, benefits, and limitations of Voice over LTE (VoLTE) in modern telecommunication networks?

  1. VoLTE enables voice calls by using traditional circuit-switched networks alongside LTE for data, resulting in simultaneous voice and data but with reduced call quality compared to 2G networks.
  2. VoLTE transmits voice calls as data packets over the LTE network using IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS), allowing higher call quality (HD voice), faster call setup, and simultaneous voice-data services, but requires compatible devices and network infrastructure.
  3. VOLTE relies on Wi-Fi networks exclusively for voice transmission, requiring no cellular coverage and thus primarily used in indoor environments with limited mobility support
  4. VoLTE eliminates the need for any packet switching and uses analog signal transmission over LTE, leading to lower latency but reduced spectral efficiency.

Answer: B. VoLTE (Voice over LTE) carries voice calls as IP data packets over the 4G network through IMS. It gives HD voice, faster call setup, and simultaneous voice and data. It needs a compatible handset and network, and falls back to 2G/3G where LTE is absent (e.g. Jio has been all-VoLTE since 2016).

Q65 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following statements about space debris is incorrect?

  1. Space debris consists primarily of defunct satellites, spent rocket stages, and fragments from collisions.
  2. The Kessler Syndrome refers to a scenario where the density of space debris is high enough to cause a cascade of collisions, exponentially increasing debris.
  3. Space debris poses a threat only to satellites in geostationary orbit (GEO) and is negligible in low Earth orbit (LEO).
  4. International guidelines, such as those by the Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee (IADC), recommend post-mission disposal of satellites to mitigate debris creation.

Answer: C. Space debris is most crowded in LEO (about 200–2,000 km), where most satellites and the ISS operate. So saying it is negligible in LEO is false. The Kessler Syndrome is a cascade of collisions creating ever more debris. ISRO's IS4OM system and the goal of debris-free missions by 2030 address this.

Q66 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following statements best explains the principle, advancements, and strategic implications of genome sequencing in the context of human health and national bioinformatics policy?

  1. Genome sequencing refers to the artificial synthesis of DNA molecules in a laboratory using CRISPR-Cas9 tools to alter hereditary traits, and is mainly used for synthetic biology rather than studying genetic makeup.
  2. Genome sequencing determines the complete order of nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C) in an organism's DNA, enabling identification of genetic variants associated with disease predisposition, and has catalyzed personalized medicine and national initiatives like India's "IndiGen" project.
  3. Genome sequencing involves the quantification of gene expression levels in different tissues and does not require DNA samples, making it a non-invasive technique used exclusively for behavioral genetics.
  4. Genome sequencing is primarily focused on identifying protein structures from RNA transcripts, and thus does not contribute to understanding hereditary diseases or pharmacogenomics.

Answer: B. Genome sequencing finds the exact order of bases (A, T, G, C) in DNA. It helps detect disease mutations, enables personalised medicine and tracks pathogens. India's Genome India Project (DBT, 2020) sequenced 10,000 genomes from 99 population groups (data released 2025) to build a national reference.

Q67 · Physics

Why are pressure cookers faster than open cooking?

  1. Decrease water's boiling point
  2. Maintain uniform temperature
  3. Increase water's boiling point
  4. Improve taste

Answer: C. A pressure cooker traps steam, which raises the pressure inside. Higher pressure raises the boiling point of water to about 120 °C, so food cooks faster. At high altitude, low pressure lowers the boiling point, which is why cooking is slow there.

Q68 · Chemistry

Why is stainless steel preferred for kitchen use over iron?

  1. It is lighter
  2. It retains heat better
  3. It resists corrosion
  4. It contains calcium

Answer: C. Stainless steel is an alloy of iron with at least about 10.5% chromium (plus nickel and carbon). Chromium forms a thin invisible chromium oxide layer that prevents rusting (corrosion), so it is hygienic and durable for kitchens.

Q69 · Physics

Which condition best describes thermodynamic equilibrium in a closed physical system?

  1. When temperature and pressure fluctuate randomly but chemical composition is constant.
  2. When temperature, pressure, and chemical potential remain uniform and constant throughout the system over time.
  3. When entropy is continuously increasing, Causing spontaneous motion.
  4. When all molecular motion stops, and energy becomes zero.

Answer: B. A system is in thermodynamic equilibrium when it is simultaneously in thermal equilibrium (uniform temperature), mechanical equilibrium (uniform pressure) and chemical equilibrium (uniform chemical potential), with no net change over time. The Zeroth Law defines thermal equilibrium.

Q70 · Physics

Which of the following best explains why entropy is associated with the "arrow of time" in physical processes?

  1. Entropy measures the speed of chemical reactions, which only occur in one direction.
  2. Entropy always increases in a closed system, providing a direction for time from past to future.
  3. Entropy causes particles to lose mass, making time irreversible.
  4. Entropy controls gravitational force, which cannot be reversed.

Answer: B. The Second Law of Thermodynamics : the entropy (disorder) of an isolated system never decreases. Because entropy grows only one way, it gives time a direction, from past to future. This is the ' arrow of time '.

Q71 · Economy

In the context of India’s fiscal policy in 2025, which of the following best describes the rationale behind imposing a windfall tax on certain sectors, and what are the potential economic implications of such a tax?

  1. Windfall tax is levied on companies with consistent losses to boost government revenues without affecting market prices
  2. Windfall tax targets excessive profits earned due to unforeseen external factors (like global commodity price spikes), aiming to redistribute gains; however, it may lead to reduced private investment and production if perceived as punitive or unpredictable
  3. Windfall tax is a fixed annual tax on all corporations irrespective of their profitability to ensure uniform fiscal contribution
  4. Windfall tax exclusively applies to the banking sector to regulate interest rate margins

Answer: B. A windfall tax is a one-off or special tax on unexpected, unusually large profits caused by outside events rather than business effort. India imposed a Special Additional Excise Duty on domestic crude and fuel exports in July 2022 after oil prices spiked, and scrapped it in December 2024. Critics say it deters investment.

Q72 · Economy

With reference to the role of infrastructure Investment Trusts (InviTs) in India's infrastructure financing ecosystem in 2025, which of the following statements best captures both their potential benefits and regulatory challenges?

  1. InviTs are mutual funds used solely for investing in startup infrastructure firms, regulated by RBI and designed for short-term returns
  2. InviTs allow sponsors to liquidate unproductive assets and are exempt from SEB! regulations due to their quasi-government status
  3. InviTs are pooled investment vehicles that enable long-term investors to invest in revenue-generating infrastructure assets; while they unlock capital for developers and promote retail participation, challenges in taxation, secondary market liquidity, and operational transparency still limit their full potential
  4. InviTs are leveraged loan instruments issued by banks to finance greenfield infrastructure projects and are protected under sovereign guarantee

Answer: C. InvITs (Infrastructure Investment Trusts, SEBI regulations 2014) are pooled vehicles, like mutual funds, that own income-generating infrastructure assets such as highways, power lines and pipelines, and pass cash flows to investors. They help asset recycling and the National Monetisation Pipeline. Issues: valuation, governance, and limited retail participation.

Q73 · Economy

The post-1991 reforms permitted greater inflow of Foreign Direct Investment (FD!) in several sectors. What was the primary objective of this policy shift?

  1. To promote foreign ownership of Indian public sector units
  2. To bridge the savings-investment gap and facilitate technology and managerial know-how transfer
  3. To replace domestic investment with foreign loans
  4. To ensure full capital account convertibility for the rupee

Answer: B. FDI was liberalised after 1991 (automatic route, 51% in priority sectors) to bridge the savings–investment gap and the foreign-exchange shortfall. It also brought technology, managerial skills and export links, without creating debt.

Q74 · Economy

Which of the following was a major recommendation of the Narasimham Committee (1991) in the context of financial sector reforms?

  1. Expansion of directed credit programs and tighter interest rate controls
  2. Nationalization of private banks to ensure state dominance
  3. Reduction of statutory pre-emptions like CRR and SLR to enhance credit availability
  4. Complete privatization of all public sector banks

Answer: C. The Narasimham Committee I (1991) recommended cutting SLR (then 38.5%) and CRR (then 15%) , deregulating interest rates, prudential norms (NPA, capital adequacy), a 4-tier banking structure, entry of private and foreign banks, and ending directed credit. The second committee (1998) followed up on these reforms.

Q75 · Economy

What does the term ‘Hindu Rate of Growth’ signify in the context of India’s economic history, and what were the structural factors that contributed to this phenomenon during the pre-liberalization period (1950s-1980s)?

  1. A growth model based on Hindu philosophical principles of minimalism and austerity
  2. A period of high economic growth during the license-permit era, driven by state-led industrialization
  3. A prolonged phase of low and stagnant economic growth averaging around 3-3.5% annually, caused by excessive state control, bureaucratic inefficiencies, and limited private sector participation under a socialist policy framework
  4. A rapid increase in GDP driven by population growth among Hindu-majority states

Answer: C. The ' Hindu rate of growth ' was coined by Prof. Raj Krishna (1978). It describes India's low GDP growth of about 3.5% a year from 1950 to 1980 , blamed on licence-raj controls, inefficient public sector units, protectionism and low productivity, not on any religion.

Q76 · Economy

Which Five Year Plan period is associated with the first implementation of the Green Revolution?

  1. Second Plan
  2. Third Plan
  3. Fourth Plan
  4. Fifth Plan

Answer: B. The Green Revolution began in the mid-1960s, at the end of the Third Plan (1961–66) and during the annual plans. It used high-yielding varieties (Norman Borlaug's Mexican wheat), fertilisers and irrigation, under M.S. Swaminathan and C. Subramaniam. Punjab, Haryana and western UP benefited first. (Some sources place it in the annual plans of 1966–69.)

Q77 · Economy

In India, the revenue collected from agricultural income tax is allocated to which level of government?

  1. State Governments
  2. Central Government
  3. Collected by State Governments, delivered to Central Government
  4. Collected by Central Government, delivered to State Governments

Answer: A. Agricultural income tax is on the State List (Entry 46). Only state governments can levy it, and they keep the revenue. Article 270 excludes it from Union income tax, since income tax other than on agricultural income is a Union subject.

Q78 · Geography

Why is the Indian Ocean Region critical in global geopolitics?

  1. It is the birthplace of democracy
  2. Over 80% of global oil trade passes through its sea lanes
  3. It is the least militarized zone
  4. It’s entirely under UN control

Answer: B. The Indian Ocean carries about 80% of the world's seaborne oil trade and half its container traffic. Chokepoints include the Strait of Hormuz, Bab-el-Mandeb and Malacca . That makes sea-lane security and great-power competition (China's 'String of Pearls', India's 'Necklace of Diamonds', the Quad) critical.

Q79 · International Organisations & Relations

The establishment of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) during the 2023 G20 Summit has been viewed as a significant move in shaping international trade routes. Which of the following options best reflects India's strategic advantage in IMEC when compared to China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI)?

  1. IMEC bypasses the Suez Canal and is backed by Russia
  2. IMEC connects India to Russia directly via Arctic shipping lanes
  3. IMEC enables India to access Europe through a US-backed, secure and rules-based infrastructure
  4. IMEC involves military deployment across the Arabian Peninsula

Answer: C. IMEC was announced at the G20 New Delhi Summit (September 2023). It is a rail-and-sea corridor: India → UAE → Saudi Arabia → Jordan → Israel → Europe. Partners: India, the US, UAE, Saudi Arabia, the EU, France, Germany and Italy. It is seen as a transparent, rules-based alternative to China's BRI.

Q80 · Sports

Why was the 2011 National Games in Jharkhand regarded as a technological milestone in the history of the event?

  1. First-time use of e-ticketing and online athlete registration
  2. Live hologram commentary in stadiums
  3. Use of Al bots for scoring evaluation
  4. Digital fan tokens for supporters

Answer: A. The 34th National Games (2011) were held in Ranchi, Jharkhand . According to the answer key, they were a technology milestone because they introduced online athlete registration and e-ticketing.

Q81 · Sports

The role of the goalkeeper in modern hockey has evolved dramatically due to:

  1. Change in jersey color rules
  2. Use of heavier sticks
  3. Introduction of advanced protective gear and aerial attacks
  4. Removal of offside rule

Answer: C. Modern hockey goalkeeping changed with heavy protective gear (helmet, kickers, leg guards, body armour), rules such as the aerial ball and the drag-flick in penalty corners, and the removal of offside (1998), which made the game faster. Keepers now defend fierce drag-flicks and aerial balls.

Q82 · Sports

What is the significance of the Sultan Azlan Shah Cup in Indian hockey history?

  1. It's India’s first hosted World Cup
  2. It’s the only event India has never won
  3. It serves as a prestigious international annual invitational tournament
  4. It replaced the Champions Trophy

Answer: C. The Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is an annual international invitational men's hockey tournament held in Ipoh, Malaysia , since 1983. India has won it 5 times (e.g. 1985, 1991, 1995, 2009, 2010).

Q83 · Sports

Which Indian athlete faced suspension in 2021 for testing positive for banned substances despite securing Olympic qualification?

  1. Nirmala Sheoran
  2. Kamalpreet Kaur
  3. Manjeet Singh
  4. Dutee Chand

Answer: B. Discus thrower Kamalpreet Kaur finished 6th at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics. In 2022 she was banned for 3 years after testing positive for the anabolic steroid stanozolol.

Q84 · Geography

The Indian Desert lies to the northwest of the Aravalli Hills and is characterized by arid conditions and shifting sand dunes. Which of the following is the correct reason for the formation of the Indian Desert?

  1. It lies in the tropical rainforest region
  2. It is located in the windward side of the Western Ghats
  3. It lies in the rain shadow region of the Aravalli Hills
  4. It receives heavy rainfall from the northeast monsoon

Answer: C. The Thar (Great Indian) Desert lies northwest of the Aravallis. The Aravallis run parallel to the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon, so the winds pass without rising and shedding rain. The region is dry, in a rain-shadow/parallel-to-wind position. Luni is its only major river.

Q85 · Geography

India's vast coastline stretches for over 7,500 kilometers, significantly impacting its climate, economy, and coastal lifestyles. Which among the following coastal plains is known for its lagoons, backwaters, and comparatively recent geological formation?

  1. Konkan Coast
  2. Coromandel Coast
  3. Malabar Coast
  4. Northern Circars

Answer: C. The Malabar Coast (Kerala) has lagoons, backwaters ('kayals') and spits , e.g. Vembanad Lake. It is part of the western coastal plain, which is largely a submerged (emergent in parts) recent coastline. The Konkan coast is rocky, and the Coromandel coast is a wide eastern delta coast.

Q86 · Geography

Which of the following features is common to both the Eastern and Western Coastal Plains of India?

  1. Presence of backwaters and estuaries
  2. Steep cliffs and high wave energy coasts
  3. Rich black soil supporting cotton cultivation
  4. Strategic location for major ports

Answer: D. Both coasts have major ports : west — Mumbai, JNPT, Kandla (Deendayal), Mormugao, New Mangaluru, Kochi; east — Kolkata–Haldia, Paradip, Visakhapatnam, Chennai, Ennore, Tuticorin. The west coast is narrow and has estuaries, while the east coast is wide with deltas.

Q87 · Physics

The photoelectric effect demonstrated that:

  1. Light behaves only as a wave.
  2. Electrons can be created by heating metal.
  3. Light energy is quantized and delivered in discrete packets, confirming the particle nature of light.
  4. Energy conservation does not apply to photons.

Answer: C. The photoelectric effect (explained by Einstein, 1905, Nobel 1921): light shining on a metal ejects electrons only above a threshold frequency, whatever its intensity. It showed light comes in quanta (photons) of energy E = hν, i.e. its particle nature.

Q88 · Art & Culture

Which of the given statements correctly describes the term Jagati in a Nagara-style temple?

  1. Jagati is the spire that houses the deity inside.
  2. Jagati is the topmost element of the temple's shikhara.
  3. Jagati refers to the base platform on which the temple is constructed.
  4. Jagati is the sanctum wall that contains inscriptions.

Answer: C. In a Nagara temple , the jagati is the raised platform or terrace on which the whole temple stands. Other parts: garbhagriha (sanctum), mandapa, shikhara (curvilinear spire), amalaka and kalasha on top. Dravida temples instead have a vimana and gopurams.

Q89 · International Organisations & Relations

Which two countries jointly launched the international Solar Alliance (ISA) in 2015?

  1. India and Germany
  2. India and France
  3. India and USA
  4. India and Brazil

Answer: B. The International Solar Alliance was launched by PM Modi and French President François Hollande at COP21, Paris (30 November 2015) . It is headquartered in Gurugram (Gwal Pahari) and aims to mobilise solar investment in 'sunshine countries'.

Q90 · Sports

The 2024 National Senior Wrestling Championship, noted for introducing electronic scoring systems for the first time, was held in which city and month?

  1. Bhubaneswar, Odisha - February 2024
  2. Bengaluru, Karnataka - December 2024
  3. Panaji, Goa —- January 2024
  4. Mumbai, Maharashtra - April 2024

Answer: B. As per the answer key, the 2024 Senior National Wrestling Championships held in Bengaluru, Karnataka (December 2024) were noted for bringing in electronic scoring.

Q91 · Sports

In which city did the Paris 2024 Olympics take place, and how many medals did India win?

  1. Tokyo, 6
  2. Paris, 6
  3. Paris, 7
  4. Hangzhou, 5

Answer: B. At the Paris 2024 Olympics India won 6 medals (1 silver, 5 bronze), ranking 71st. Silver: Neeraj Chopra (javelin). Bronze: Manu Bhaker (10 m air pistol), Manu Bhaker–Sarabjot Singh (mixed pistol), Swapnil Kusale (50 m rifle 3P), men's hockey, and Aman Sehrawat (wrestling). Tokyo 2020 had 7 medals.

Q92 · Sports

Which Indian city hosted the inaugural Kho Kho World Cup (Jan 2025)?

  1. Mumbai
  2. New Delhi
  3. Chennai
  4. Hyderabad

Answer: B. The first Kho Kho World Cup (13–19 January 2025) was held at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi . India won both the men's and women's titles, beating Nepal in both finals.

Q93 · Sports

Where were the Khelo India Youth Games 2024 held?

  1. Kerala
  2. Mumbai
  3. Tamil Nadu (Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai, Trichy)
  4. Delhi

Answer: C. The Khelo India Youth Games (6th edition, held 19–31 January 2024) were hosted by Tamil Nadu in Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchirappalli. Maharashtra topped the medal table.

Q94 · Physics

What is the principal source of energy for life on Earth?

  1. Water
  2. Sunlight
  3. Soil
  4. Wind

Answer: B. Sunlight is the ultimate energy source for life. Plants capture it through photosynthesis and store it as chemical energy, which passes up food chains. Only about 1% of the sunlight reaching plants is fixed. Deep-sea vent ecosystems (chemosynthesis) are the rare exception.

Q95 · Space, Science & Technology

What CRISPR-Cas9 breakthrough was achieved by Indian scientists at IGIB in 2024?

  1. First test-tube baby
  2. Editing the sickle cell gene in an Indian patient
  3. Human cloning
  4. Inventing artificial blood

Answer: B. CSIR-IGIB (Delhi) developed an indigenous CRISPR-based gene therapy for sickle cell disease (later named 'BIRSA 101'). It corrects the mutated β-globin gene in a patient's stem cells. It is part of the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission (target 2047).

Q96 · Art & Culture

The 'Dahi Handi’ human pyramid event is central to which festival?

  1. Navratri
  2. Holi
  3. Janmashtami
  4. Ram Navami

Answer: C. Dahi Handi is held on Janmashtami (Krishna's birthday), mainly in Maharashtra. 'Govindas' form human pyramids to break a pot of curd hung high, recalling young Krishna stealing butter (Makhan Chor).

Q97 · Books, Awards & Personalities

“Sea of Poppies,” shortlisted for the Booker Prize, is authored by:

  1. Amitav Ghosh
  2. Salman Rushdie
  3. Vikram Seth
  4. Aravind Adiga

Answer: A. Sea of Poppies (2008) by Amitav Ghosh was shortlisted for the Man Booker Prize. It is the first part of the Ibis Trilogy , followed by River of Smoke and Flood of Fire, set during the 1830s opium trade. Ghosh won the Jnanpith in 2018.

Q98 · Polity & Governance

The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with:

  1. Panchayats
  2. Division of powers (lists)
  3. Fundamental Duties
  4. Emergency provisions

Answer: B. The Seventh Schedule (Article 246) divides legislative subjects into the Union List (now 98 entries), State List (59) and Concurrent List (52). Panchayats are in the 11th Schedule, and Fundamental Duties in Part IVA (Art 51A).

Q99 · Polity & Governance

The office of the Speaker in the Indian Parliamentary system is heavily influenced by:

  1. British Constitution
  2. Canadian Constitution
  3. French Constitution
  4. Irish Constitution

Answer: A. The office of the Speaker is modelled on the British House of Commons , along with parliamentary government, cabinet system, rule of law and bicameralism. The Indian Speaker is less strictly non-partisan than the British one, who resigns from party membership.

Q100 · Polity & Governance

The Attorney-General of India has the right of audience in:

  1. The Supreme Court
  2. The High Courts
  3. All courts in India
  4. Constitutional courts

Answer: C. The Attorney General (Article 76) is India's highest law officer and has the right of audience in all courts in India (Art 76(3)). The AG can take part in Parliament's proceedings without voting (Art 88) but is not a member of the Cabinet. The current AG is R. Venkataramani.

10 Sep, Shift 3

Q51 · Medieval History

Shivaji’s Ashtapradhan (Council of Eight Ministers) system is believed to have been inspired by which Deccan administrator known for his military and revenue reforms?

  1. Afzal Khan
  2. Aurangjeb
  3. Shaistakhan
  4. Malik Ambar

Answer: D. Malik Ambar (an Abyssinian-born regent of Ahmadnagar) created a revenue system based on land measurement and guerrilla warfare (bargir-giri) using Maratha soldiers. Shivaji's father Shahji served under him. Shivaji's Ashtapradhan — Peshwa, Amatya, Sachiv, Mantri, Senapati, Sumant, Nyayadhish and Panditrao — reflects this Deccani administrative legacy.

Q52 · Medieval History

Which of the following statements best explains the transformation in the role of Palegandru (Palegars) from the Vijayanagara period to the early colonial era?

  1. Originally religious heads during Vijayanagara rule, Palegars later became British-appointed Zamindars with ceremonial roles only
  2. From autonomous local warlords under the Cholas, Palegars became subordinate generals during the Mughal rule in the Deccan
  3. Initially military and administrative chiefs under Vijayanagara, Palegars gained semi-independence after its decline and resisted Mysore and British consolidation efforts
  4. Established by Hyder Ali as military governors, Palegars later turned into revenue collectors under the Maratha Empire

Answer: C. Palegars (Poligars) were military chiefs granted land (palayams) under Vijayanagara's Nayankara system, especially under the Madurai Nayaks, in return for troops and revenue. After Vijayanagara declined they became semi-independent. They then resisted the British (Poligar Wars, 1799–1805: Veerapandiya Kattabomman, Maruthu brothers).

Q53 · Art & Culture

In the context of Bhootha Aradhane, a ritualistic dance tradition of coastal Karnataka, which of the following aspects most accurately captures its sociocultural function, ritual process, and theological basis, distinguishing it from other regional spirit worship practices?

  1. It is a form of tribal trance dance performed during harvest, where animal sacrifices are mandatory, and no verbal interaction with the audience takes place.
  2. It is a highly structured theatrical performance representing celestial deities, where actors recite epic verses in Sanskrit and perform before temple sanctums.
  3. It is a ritualistic trance performance involving dramatic costumes, possession of impersonators (Patris) by local spirits (Daivas or Bhoothas), where the possessed intermediary delivers oracles, resolves community disputes, and reinforces social order through divine justice.
  4. It is a monastic dance performed by Shaiva ascetics in caves and forests to invoke Lord Shiva through silent gestures and symbolic mudras.

Answer: C. Bhoota Kola / Bhootha Aradhane is spirit worship of Tulu Nadu (Dakshina Kannada, Udupi). A performer (paatri/nalike) in elaborate make-up and areca-sheath costume is possessed by a local deity (bhoota/daiva) such as Panjurli or Guliga, and settles village disputes. It featured in the film 'Kantara'.

Q54 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

What is a distinctive feature of the PM-JUGA initiative that promotes inclusive and community-driven development in tribal regions, making it different from earlier tribal welfare programs?

  1. It focuses solely on distributing monetary benefits to all Scheduled Tribes through direct cash transfers.
  2. It provides universal job guarantees to tribal youth under a new tribal-specific employment act.
  3. It adopts a saturation-based, convergent, and participatory approach targeting Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), ensuring last-mile delivery of multiple services through coordinated efforts across ministries.
  4. It replaces all existing tribal development schemes with a single, centrally-run program designed without local consultation.

Answer: C. PM-JUGA (Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan) was approved in September 2024. It covers about 63,000 tribal-majority villages through the convergence of 17 ministries (25 interventions) with a saturation approach — housing, roads, water, health, education, livelihoods. It was later branded 'Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan'. (The scheme aimed specifically at PVTGs is PM-JANMAN, 2023.)

Q55 · Geography

Which of the following statements correctly identifies key scientific, geographical, and administrative challenges in India’s earthquake preparedness, particularly in high-risk seismic zones?

  1. India’s entire Himalayan belt falls under Zone V, and the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMmandates earthquake- resistant design for all rural buildings under the Building Code 2016.
  2. Seismic microzonation has been completed for all urban centers in India, allowing state governments to uniformly implement earthquake-safe building regulations through the National Building Code
  3. While India’s western and northeastern regions lie in Zones IV and V respectively, the lack of enforcement of building codes, outdated land use planning, and insufficient retrofitting in urban clusters severely compromise disaster resilience.
  4. The Earthquake Early Warning System is universally installed in all Indian states, with uniform response protocols and evacuation infrastructure integrated into Smart City Plans.

Answer: C. India's seismic map (BIS IS 1893) divides the country into zones II to V. Zone V, the highest risk, covers the North-East, J&K/Ladakh, Himachal, Uttarakhand, the Rann of Kutch and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands; much of the Indo-Gangetic plain is Zone IV. The key problem is poor enforcement of earthquake-resistant building codes , incomplete microzonation, and limited early-warning coverage.

Q56 · Geography

Which of the following statements about the ACDM (Lambda Cold Dark Matter) cosmological model is incorrect?

  1. The ACDM model incorporates the cosmological constant (A) to explain the observed accelerated expansion of the universe.
  2. It assumes that dark matter is composed of hot, relativistic particles that decouple early in the universe’s evolution.
  3. The model successfully explains the large-scale structure formation and the cosmic microwave background (CMB) anisotropies observed by missions like Planck.
  4. Ordinary baryonic matter constitutes only about 5% of the total energy density of the universe according to the ACDM model.

Answer: B. The ΛCDM model is the standard cosmological model. Λ (the cosmological constant) stands for dark energy (about 68%), Cold Dark Matter (slow, non-relativistic particles) about 27%, and ordinary matter about 5%. Saying dark matter is 'hot, relativistic' is wrong: that describes hot dark matter such as neutrinos.

Q57 · Chemistry

Which of the following statements correctly describes the unique properties and potential applications of Carbon Nanotubes (CNTs) in advanced technology?

  1. Carbon Nanotubes are cylindrical allotropes of carbon composed of multiple layers of graphene sheets rolled concentrically, exhibiting excellent electrical conductivity, high tensile strength, and are widely used as catalysts in traditional chemical reactions.
  2. Single-walled Carbon Nanotubes (SWCNTs) possess tunable electrical properties that can be either metallic or semiconducting depending on their chirality and diameter, making them promising materials for nanoelectronics and sensor applications.
  3. Carbon Nanotubes inherently have low thermal conductivity but are primarily valued for their magnetic properties in spintronic devices.
  4. Carbon Nanotubes degrade rapidly under atmospheric conditions, limiting their practical use in materials science and requiring constant inert environment for handling.

Answer: B. Carbon nanotubes are rolled graphene sheets, a carbon allotrope like fullerene and graphene. Single-walled CNTs can be metallic or semiconducting depending on how they are rolled (chirality). They are extremely strong, highly conductive and chemically stable, and are used in electronics, sensors, composites and drug delivery.

Q58 · Chemistry

Which compound in garlic contributes to its antimicrobial property?

  1. Allicin
  2. Ascorbic acid
  3. Curcumin
  4. Eugenol

Answer: A. Allicin forms when garlic is crushed (the enzyme alliinase acts on alliin). It is a sulphur compound with antibacterial and antifungal action and gives garlic its smell. Curcumin is from turmeric, eugenol from clove/tulsi, and ascorbic acid is vitamin C.

Q59 · Geography

What does the discovery of Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation primarily support?

  1. The existence of black holes in all galaxies.
  2. The Big Bang theory of the universe’s origin.
  3. The Steady-State theory of constant cosmic density.
  4. That space is completely cold and inert.

Answer: B. The Cosmic Microwave Background (about 2.7 K) was discovered by Penzias and Wilson in 1965 (Nobel 1978). It is leftover radiation from about 380,000 years after the Big Bang , and is key evidence against the Steady-State theory.

Q60 · Economy

Which of the following best characterizes the nature and objectives of second-generation economic reforms in India, initiated after the initial 1991 liberalization?

  1. They focused exclusively on reversing the first-generation reforms due to social backlash
  2. They aimed at deepening structural changes by improving governance, labor laws, financial sector regulation, and infrastructure development
  3. They sought to reintroduce industrial licensing and restrict foreign direct investment
  4. They were limited to agricultural subsidies and rural employment schemes

Answer: B. The second-generation reforms (late 1990s–2000s) went beyond the 1991 LPG measures to deeper structural reforms: governance, labour and land laws, financial sector (insurance opening, the FRBM Act 2003), infrastructure and PPPs, power sector (Electricity Act 2003), VAT, and later GST.

Q61 · Economy

In the context of the 1991 economic reforms in India, what was the underlying rationale for promoting privatization, and why was it considered a shift in the philosophy of state intervention in the economy?

  1. To achieve complete withdrawal of the state from all productive sectors and allow only foreign companies to invest
  2. To raise immediate fiscal revenue by auctioning public assets without concern for efficiency
  3. To reduce the fiscal burden, improve efficiency of public enterprises, and redefine the role of the state from owner to facilitator
  4. To abolish the public sector and replace it with state monopolies in defense and heavy industries

Answer: C. Privatisation in 1991 aimed to cut the fiscal burden of loss-making PSUs, improve efficiency through competition and market discipline, and change the state's role from owner/producer to facilitator/regulator . It was done through disinvestment, strategic sales (e.g. Air India to Tata, 2022) and opening reserved sectors.

Q62 · Geography

Which Indian port is known as the 'Gateway of Eastern India‘?

  1. Paradip
  2. Kolkata
  3. Haldia
  4. Visakhapatnam

Answer: B. Kolkata (Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port) is a riverine port on the Hooghly, about 128 km inland, and India's oldest major port. It serves eastern India, the North-East, and land-locked Nepal and Bhutan, hence 'Gateway of Eastern India'. Haldia is its deep-water dock. Visakhapatnam is the deepest landlocked-protected port.

Q63 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Often called the “Missile Woman of India”, this female scientist led many DRDO missile projects and became a symbol of female leadership in STEM. Who is she?

  1. Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw
  2. Nandini Harinath
  3. Tessy Thomas
  4. Ritu Karidhal

Answer: C. Dr Tessy Thomas (Kerala) led the Agni-IV and Agni-V missile projects. She was the first woman to head an Indian missile project and is called the 'Missile Woman' or 'Agniputri'. She later became DG (Aeronautical Systems), DRDO. Ritu Karidhal and Nandini Harinath are ISRO scientists (Chandrayaan/Mangalyaan).

Q64 · Modern History

Who among the following unsung heroes led the Mizo National Famine Front during the 1959 Mautam famine and later established the MNF movement for the rights of the Mizo people?

  1. Laldenga
  2. Lal Thanhawla
  3. Pu Zoramthanga
  4. T. Sailo

Answer: A. The Mautam famine (1959) followed bamboo flowering, which caused a rat explosion that destroyed crops. Laldenga formed the Mizo National Famine Front, which became the Mizo National Front (1961) and waged insurgency. The Mizoram Peace Accord (1986) led to statehood in 1987, with Laldenga as the first Chief Minister.

Q65 · International Organisations & Relations

With increasing Chinese naval presence in the Indian Ocean through its “String of Pearls” strategy, India’s Indo-Pacific policy emphasizes alliances, military logistics pacts, and island diplomacy. How does India’s cooperation with Indian Ocean island nations like Seychelles, Mauritius, and Maldives support its maritime strategy?

  1. It provides tourism income
  2. It allows India to station nuclear weapons in the region
  3. It helps monitor Sea Lines of Communication and enhances strategic depth
  4. It bypasses international maritime laws

Answer: C. China's ' String of Pearls ' refers to ports it has built or financed (Gwadar, Hambantota, Kyaukphyu, Djibouti base). India counters through partnerships with island states — Assumption Island (Seychelles), Agaléga (Mauritius), coastal radar chains, the Colombo Security Conclave — to monitor Sea Lines of Communication and gain strategic depth.

Q66 · Geography

Which of the following regions of India is most susceptible to earthquakes due to its tectonic activity and convergence of the Indian and Eurasian plates?

  1. Eastern Ghats
  2. Deccan Plateau
  3. Indo-Gangetic Plain
  4. Himalayan Belt

Answer: D. The Himalayan belt is the most earthquake-prone region because the Indian plate is still pushing into the Eurasian plate at about 4–5 cm a year. Most of it lies in seismic Zones IV–V. Examples: Bhuj 2001 (Kutch), Kashmir 2005, Nepal 2015. The Deccan plateau is a relatively stable shield.

Q67 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Which of the following features is common to both the Happiness Index and HDI in determining a country's rank?

  1. Economic inequality
  2. Internet availability
  3. Life expectancy
  4. National defense expenditure

Answer: C. Both indices use life expectancy . The HDI uses life expectancy at birth, and the World Happiness Report uses healthy life expectancy, along with GDP per capita, social support, freedom, generosity and perceived corruption.

Q68 · Ancient History

Which among the following is the earliest known form of human life in India?

  1. Homo sapiens
  2. Homo erectus
  3. Australopithecus
  4. Neanderthal

Answer: B. The oldest hominin fossil in India is the Hathnora (Narmada Valley) skull , found in 1982 by Arun Sonakia near Hoshangabad, MP. It was classified as archaic Homo erectus (some say archaic Homo sapiens). Acheulean tools (Attirampakkam, about 1.5 million years ago) also point to Homo erectus.

Q69 · Space, Science & Technology

Who was selected to represent India on the Axiom Mission 4 to the ISS and will conduct food and nutrition experiments in space?

  1. Col Rakesh Sinha — test pilot and payload specialist
  2. Gp Capt Shubhanshu Shukla - astronaut and science researcher
  3. Wg Cdr Nitin Raj - medical officer and bio-specialist
  4. Lt Cdr Rajeev Menon — engineer and hydro systems lead

Answer: B. Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla (IAF, a Gaganyaan astronaut-designate) flew as pilot on Axiom Mission-4 (launched 25 June 2025). He was the first Indian on the ISS and the second Indian in space after Rakesh Sharma (1984). He carried out experiments including sprouting moong and methi seeds, microalgae and tardigrades.

Q70 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Which Indian leader made history in August 2024 by becoming the first Head of State to visit Fiji, New Zealand, and Timor-Leste?

  1. Jagdeep Dhankhar
  2. Minister S. Jaishankar
  3. Droupadi Murmu
  4. Narendra Modi

Answer: C. President Droupadi Murmu made the first-ever state visits by an Indian Head of State to Fiji, New Zealand and Timor-Leste (5–10 August 2024). She received Fiji's highest honour, the Companion of the Order of Fiji.

Q71 · Environment & Ecology

Which of the following places is NOT a vulture conservation breeding centre under the Bombay Natural History Society?

  1. Pinjore (Haryana)
  2. Buxa (West Bengal)
  3. Rani, Guwahati (Assam)
  4. Pachmarhi (Madhya Pradesh)

Answer: D. India's vulture populations crashed because of the veterinary drug diclofenac . BNHS and state governments run Vulture Conservation Breeding Centres at Pinjore (Haryana, the first, 2001), Rajabhatkhawa/Buxa (West Bengal) and Rani (Assam), plus Bhopal (MP). There is none at Pachmarhi.

Q72 · Geography

Which mineral is most abundant in the Earth's continental crust?

  1. Olivine
  2. Amphibole
  3. Feldspar
  4. Mica

Answer: C. Feldspars (orthoclase, plagioclase) make up about half of the Earth's crust, making them the most abundant mineral group, followed by quartz. Oxygen is the most abundant element in the crust (about 46.6%), then silicon, aluminium and iron.

Q73 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

What rank did India achieve in the 2025 World Happiness Index?

  1. 118
  2. 120
  3. 130
  4. 116

Answer: A. In the World Happiness Report 2025 (UN SDSN, Gallup, Oxford), India ranked 118th of 147 countries, up from 126th in 2024. Finland was 1st for the 8th year running.

Q74 · Economy

Globalization has significantly impacted Indian agriculture. Which of the following is a negative consequence often associated with globalization's impact on Indian farmers?

  1. Increased access to international markets for agricultural products.
  2. Greater availability of modern agricultural machinery.
  3. Exposure to competition from cheaper imported agricultural goods and volatile global prices.
  4. Promotion of diversified cropping patterns for export.

Answer: C. Globalisation opened Indian farm markets. Negatives: competition from cheaper, often subsidised imports (edible oils, cotton), exposure to volatile world prices, and pressure to cut subsidies under WTO rules. These hit small and marginal farmers most.

Q75 · Economy

Read the below statements: 1. Trade Policy Reforms removed import licensing for most items. 2. Devaluation of the rupee made imports cheaper. 3. FDI was encouraged post-1991 through automatic approval routes. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. Only 1 and 3 are correct
  3. Only 2 and 3 are correct
  4. All 1, 2, and 3 are correct

Answer: B. Statement 1 is correct : import licensing was largely abolished in 1991. Statement 3 is correct : FDI up to 51% was allowed in priority industries through the automatic route. Statement 2 is wrong : devaluation (July 1991, about 18–19%) makes imports costlier and exports cheaper.

Q76 · Modern History

Fill in the blank: The Vernacular Press Act of 1878, enacted by Lord , empowered the British government to seize the assets of Indian- language newspapers that published critical or 'seditious' reports, thereby suppressing their freedom.

  1. Canning
  2. Ripon
  3. Lytton
  4. Dufferin

Answer: C. Lord Lytton passed the Vernacular Press Act (1878) , nicknamed the 'Gagging Act'. It allowed seizure of the press and security deposits of Indian-language papers for 'seditious' writing. English papers were exempt, so Amrita Bazar Patrika turned into an English paper overnight. Lord Ripon repealed it in 1882.

Q77 · Sports

Who became India’s first Olympic athletics gold medalist and remains a sporting icon in 2025?

  1. Neeraj Chopra
  2. PR Sreejesh
  3. Manu Bhaker
  4. Mirabai Chanu

Answer: A. Neeraj Chopra won men's javelin gold at Tokyo 2020 (87.58 m) , India's first Olympic gold in athletics and second individual gold after Abhinav Bindra (2008, shooting). He added silver at Paris 2024 and is also a World Champion (2023).

Q78 · Economy

Which of the following is not a macroeconomic aggregate?

  1. Aggregate demand
  2. GDP
  3. Price level
  4. Market supply of rice

Answer: D. Macroeconomics studies the economy as a whole: GDP, aggregate demand and supply, general price level, employment, money supply. The market supply of one good like rice is a microeconomic variable, so it is not a macroeconomic aggregate.

Q79 · International Organisations & Relations

Which of the following is a TRUE statement about Indian Ocean states as of 2025?

  1. Only Asian and African states border the Indian Ocean
  2. Indian Ocean sovereign states include countries from Africa, Asia, and Oceania; France and UK have territories
  3. Only 10 countries are in the region
  4. Russia borders the Indian Ocean

Answer: B. The Indian Ocean rim has sovereign states from Africa, Asia and Oceania (Australia) , while France (Réunion, Mayotte) and the UK (British Indian Ocean Territory/Diego Garcia; the Chagos transfer to Mauritius was agreed in 2025) hold territories. Russia does not border it.

Q80 · Polity & Governance

The head of the State Council of Ministers is the:

  1. Chief Minister
  2. Governor
  3. Speaker
  4. President

Answer: A. Under Article 163 , a Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister aids and advises the Governor. The Governor is the constitutional head of the state, and the CM is the real executive head.

Q81 · Polity & Governance

In case of a conflict between Union and State law on a Concurrent List subject, which prevails?

  1. State law
  2. Union law
  3. Law made by Panchayats
  4. Law by Supreme Court

Answer: B. Under Article 254 , if a state law on a Concurrent List subject conflicts with a Union law, the Union law prevails and the state law is void to that extent. The exception: a state law reserved for and assented to by the President prevails in that state, unless Parliament later overrides it.

Q82 · Polity & Governance

Which of the following is NOT in the State List?

  1. Police
  2. Agriculture
  3. Public health
  4. Atomic energy

Answer: D. Atomic energy is a Union List subject (Entry 6), along with defence, foreign affairs, railways and banking. Police, agriculture, and public health and sanitation are State List subjects.

Q83 · Sports

What is the full form of IPL, India’s famous sports league?

  1. Indian Polo League
  2. Indian Premier League
  3. International Pro League
  4. Indoor Premier League

Answer: B. IPL — Indian Premier League — is the BCCI's T20 franchise league, started in 2008. Rajasthan Royals won the first title. Mumbai Indians and Chennai Super Kings have 5 titles each, and RCB won their first in 2025.

Q84 · Economy

What happened to India’s foreign exchange reserves after the 1991 reforms?

  1. Declined to lowest point
  2. Reached historic highs in following decades
  3. Remained same
  4. Were abolished

Answer: B. In the 1991 crisis, reserves fell to about US$1.2 billion (roughly two weeks of imports), and India pledged 67 tonnes of gold. After the reforms, reserves rose steadily to over US$700 billion (record about $705 billion, September 2024), now among the world's largest.

Q85 · Environment & Ecology

Which is the primary legal act for air pollution control in India?

  1. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
  2. Environment Protection Act
  3. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
  4. Forest Rights Act

Answer: A. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 is India's primary air pollution law. It empowers the CPCB and SPCBs and lets states declare air-pollution control areas. The Water Act came earlier (1974), and the EP Act (1986) is the umbrella law.

Q86 · Space, Science & Technology

Which ISRO satellite, launched in January 2025, improved the indigenous NaviC navigation system?

  1. Cartosat-3
  2. NVS-02
  3. GSAT-29
  4. RISAT-2B

Answer: B. NVS-02 was launched on 29 January 2025 by GSLV-F15 , the 100th launch from Sriharikota . It is the second of ISRO's new-generation NavIC satellites (L1 band, indigenous atomic clock). Its orbit-raising later failed because a valve did not open.

Q87 · Polity & Governance

Which phrase now replaces “sedition” under new criminal laws as of July 2024?

  1. Sedition
  2. Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India
  3. Treason
  4. Political Offence

Answer: B. The BNS dropped the colonial word ' sedition ' (IPC Section 124A). Section 152 BNS punishes ' acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India ' — secession, armed rebellion, subversive activities — including through electronic means.

Q88 · Polity & Governance

What is enshrined in Part III (Articles 12-35) of the Indian Constitution?

  1. Fundamental Duties
  2. Fundamental Rights
  3. Directive Principles
  4. Union Territories

Answer: B. Part III (Articles 12–35) contains the Fundamental Rights , the 'Magna Carta' of the Constitution. There are six: Equality (14–18), Freedom (19–22), Against Exploitation (23–24), Religion (25–28), Cultural & Educational (29–30), and Constitutional Remedies (32). Property was removed by the 44th Amendment.

Q89 · Polity & Governance

Which article provides remedies for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

  1. Article 32
  2. Article 21
  3. Article 19
  4. Article 514

Answer: A. Article 32 lets citizens approach the Supreme Court directly to enforce Fundamental Rights through writs : habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto. Ambedkar called it the ' heart and soul ' of the Constitution. High Courts issue writs under Article 226.

Q90 · Polity & Governance

What is notably addressed under the new laws to improve witness security for the first time in July 2024?

  1. Anonymous testimony
  2. Witness protection guidelines
  3. Police protection for all
  4. Relocation to another state

Answer: B. The BNSS, 2023 (Section 398) requires every state to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme . This gives statutory backing to the Supreme Court-approved Witness Protection Scheme of 2018 (Mahender Chawla case).

Q91 · Geography

Which is the main urban demographic trend highlighted in India between 2011 and 2025?

  1. Urban population shrank
  2. Urban population stable at 30%
  3. Rapid urbanization to 37% with mega cities growing
  4. Only rural population grew

Answer: C. India's urban share was 31.1% in Census 2011 and is estimated at about 35–37% by the mid-2020s. Growth is concentrated in mega and metro cities and in census towns (peri-urban areas), driven by migration and the reclassification of villages.

Q92 · Sports

In which city was the 2024 Indian Grand Prix (MotoGP) held?

  1. Chennai
  2. Greater Noida
  3. Hyderabad
  4. Pune

Answer: B. The Indian Grand Prix of MotoGP ('MotoGP Bharat') is held at the Buddh International Circuit, Greater Noida (UP) . The inaugural race was in September 2023 (won by Marco Bezzecchi). The later editions were postponed.

Q93 · Sports

Where will the BWF World Junior Championships 2025 be held in India?

  1. Lucknow
  2. New Delhi
  3. Guwahati
  4. Kolkata

Answer: C. The BWF World Junior Championships 2025 were held in Guwahati, Assam (October 2025), at the National Centre of Excellence. It was India's second time hosting after Pune (2008).

Q94 · Physics

Which law quantifies the relationship between resistance, voltage, and current?

  1. Boyle's Law
  2. Ohm's Law
  3. Hooke's Law
  4. Newton's Third Law

Answer: B. Ohm's Law : V = IR — current through a conductor is proportional to the voltage, at constant temperature. Resistance is measured in ohms (Ω). Boyle's law relates gas pressure and volume, and Hooke's law relates stress and strain.

Q95 · Modern History

The Government of India Act 1935 separated Burma from India effective from which year?

  1. 1933
  2. 1935
  3. 1937
  4. 1942

Answer: C. The Government of India Act, 1935 separated Burma from British India with effect from 1 April 1937 , when provincial autonomy also began. Aden was separated at the same time.

Q96 · Biology

Which plant family is most important for pulses and protein-rich crops in Indian agriculture?

  1. Poaceae
  2. Fabaceae
  3. Solanaceae
  4. Brassicaceae

Answer: B. Fabaceae (Leguminosae) is the pea/bean family: pulses such as gram, arhar, moong, urad and lentil, plus soybean and groundnut. Their root nodules host Rhizobium bacteria that fix nitrogen, so they are rich in protein and improve soil. Poaceae is the grass family (cereals).

Q97 · Economy

What was the main focus area of the First Five Year Plan (1951-56)?

  1. Industrialization
  2. Agriculture and irrigation
  3. Export promotion
  4. Heavy engineering

Answer: B. The First Plan (1951–56) , with K.N. Raj among its architects, focused on agriculture, irrigation, power and community development to deal with food shortages after Partition. It exceeded its growth target (3.6% achieved vs 2.1% targeted).

Q98 · Sports

“All Square” is a term for a tie specifically found in which sport?

  1. Archery
  2. Tennis
  3. Golf/Match Play
  4. Volleyball

Answer: C. In golf match play , ' All Square ' means the players or sides are level (tied) in holes won. Other golf terms: birdie, eagle, bogey, par, hole-in-one, caddie, tee.

Q99 · Sports

India won how many medals at the 2023 Asian Games?

  1. 88
  2. 43
  3. 107
  4. 77

Answer: C. At the 2023 Asian Games, Hangzhou (held September–October 2023), India won a record 107 medals (28 gold, 38 silver, 41 bronze) and finished 4th. India's slogan was 'Is baar 100 paar'.

Q100 · Geography

What is the total length of the land border shared between India and Bangladesh?

  1. 4,960 km
  2. 4,096 km
  3. 4,906 km
  4. 4,609 km

Answer: B. India–Bangladesh share India's longest land border, about 4,096.7 km . It touches 5 states : West Bengal (the longest stretch), Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The Land Boundary Agreement (2015) swapped enclaves. India's border with China is about 3,488 km.

11 Sep, Shift 1

Q51 · Art & Culture

The Perupalem Beach Festival is organized in which Indian state?

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Odisha
  3. Andhra Pradesh
  4. Kerala

Answer: C. The Perupalem Beach Festival is held at Perupalem beach, West Godavari district, Andhra Pradesh , with water sports, cultural shows and local cuisine. It is promoted by AP Tourism, which also runs the Visakha Utsav.

Q52 · Art & Culture

What is the usual timing for the Hola Mohalla festival in relation to Holi?

  1. One day before Holi
  2. One week after Holi
  3. On the same day as Holi
  4. One day after Holi

Answer: D. Hola Mohalla begins on the day after Holi (1st of Chet), at Anandpur Sahib. Guru Gobind Singh started it in 1701 as a martial festival, in contrast to Holi's colours.

Q53 · Art & Culture

What type of clothing is worn by women in Kalbelia dance?

  1. Saree with veil
  2. Angrakhi and lehenga
  3. Salwar-Kameez with dupatta
  4. Chaniya-choli

Answer: B. Kalbelia is the snake-charmer community dance of Rajasthan and a UNESCO Intangible Heritage (2010). Women wear a flowing black lehenga (ghagra) with angrakhi/choli and odhni , embroidered with mirrors and silver threads, and whirl in serpentine movements to the been and dafli.

Q54 · Art & Culture

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Chaupaia folk dance of Haryana?

  1. It is a martial dance performed by male warriors with sticks.
  2. It is a devotional folk dance performed by both men and women with maniiras.
  3. It is a wedding ritual dance involving traditional drums and dhols.
  4. Itis a harvest dance performed by women with decorated pots.

Answer: B. Chaupaia is a devotional folk dance of Haryana (Mewat/Ahirwal areas) performed by men and women in groups with manjiras (small cymbals) , singing hymns. Other Haryanvi dances: Phag, Loor, Dhamal, Khoria and Gugga.

Q55 · Environment & Ecology

According to the State of the Rhino 2024 report, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Rhino poaching in Africa has decreased from 2022 to 2023
  2. Greater one-horned rhino population has significantly declined in 2023
  3. The number of white rhinos has increased, while Indian rhino population remained stable
  4. All rhino species are now listed as critically endangered

Answer: C. The International Rhino Foundation's State of the Rhino 2024 reported about 27,000 rhinos worldwide. Southern white rhinos rose (to about 17,400), black rhinos were steady or slightly up, and the greater one-horned (Indian) rhino was stable at about 4,000 (India–Nepal, about 3,000 in Kaziranga). Javan and Sumatran rhinos remain critically endangered.

Q56 · Art & Culture

Which of the following is a notable painting from Ajanta?

  1. Descent of the Ganges
  2. Battle of Kurukshetra
  3. Padmapani Bodhisattva
  4. Krishna Lifting Govardhan

Answer: C. Padmapani (Bodhisattva Avalokiteshvara) in Cave 1 is Ajanta's most famous painting, done in the fresco-secco technique under the Vakatakas (about 5th century). 'Descent of the Ganges' (Arjuna's Penance) is a rock relief at Mahabalipuram (Pallava).

Q57 · Geography

Which phenomenon explains the apparent retrograde motion of planets as seen from Earth?

  1. Precession
  2. Gravitational lensing
  3. Orbital resonance
  4. Relative planetary motion

Answer: D. Retrograde motion is when a planet like Mars seems to move backwards across the sky for a while. It is an illusion caused by the relative motion of Earth and the planet : Earth, on its faster inner orbit, 'overtakes' it. Copernicus's heliocentric model explained it simply.

Q58 · Physics

Which type of telescope can observe cosmic microwave background radiation?

  1. Optical Telescope
  2. Infrared Telescope
  3. Radio Telescope
  4. X-ray Telescope

Answer: C. The CMB peaks in the microwave band (about 1 mm wavelength), which is part of the radio spectrum. It is detected with radio/microwave telescopes and antennas (Penzias & Wilson's horn antenna, COBE, WMAP, the Planck satellite).

Q59 · Geography

Which of the following best describes the phenomenon of El Nifio in the context of global climate?

  1. Periodic warming of sea surface in central and eastern Pacific
  2. A sudden cooling of the Atlantic Ocean due to glacial melt
  3. An increase in solar radiation causing global droughts
  4. A monsoon-driven reversal of ocean currents in the Indian Ocean

Answer: A. El Niño is the periodic warming (every 2–7 years) of the central and eastern equatorial Pacific , with weaker trade winds. It is linked to the Southern Oscillation (ENSO) and usually weakens India's monsoon (droughts, e.g. 2009, 2015). La Niña is the cooling phase and usually brings good monsoons. The Indian Ocean Dipole also affects the monsoon.

Q60 · Economy

During the 1950s and 1960s, what was a major component of India's imports due to internal shortages?

  1. Petroleum and crude oil
  2. Gold and silver
  3. Foodgrains, capital goods, and machinery
  4. Consumer durables and luxury automobiles

Answer: C. In the 1950s–60s India lacked food and industrial capacity. It imported foodgrains (including under the US PL-480 scheme, 'ship-to-mouth' in the mid-1960s) and capital goods and machinery for Plan industrialisation.

Q61 · Geography

Which one of the following pairs of state and tea-producing region is correctly matched?

  1. Kerala —- Dooars Region
  2. Tamil Nadu — Anamalai Hills
  3. West Bengal - Munnar Valley
  4. Uttarakhand — Nilgiri Slopes

Answer: B. Anamalai Hills (Valparai, Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu ) are a major tea region. Correct locations for the distractors: Dooars is in West Bengal, Munnar in Kerala, and the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu. Assam is the largest tea-producing state.

Q62 · International Organisations & Relations

Which core objective defines India’s engagement in the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)?

  1. Building a collective defense mechanism
  2. Facilitating Chinese access to African markets
  3. Enhancing blue economy and maritime security
  4. Creating a Hindu-Buddhist cultural bloc

Answer: C. IORA (1997, 23 members, secretariat in Mauritius) promotes regional cooperation. Priorities include maritime safety and security, the blue economy , trade facilitation, fisheries, disaster management and tourism. India chaired it in 2025–27.

Q63 · Space, Science & Technology

What is the primary payload of India’s XPoSat mission, and what is its main scientific function?

  1. XSPECT — to detect gravitational lensing in gamma-ray bursts
  2. POLIX - to measure polarization in medium energy X-rays
  3. SPOT — to track solar particle events in deep space
  4. PRISM — to study spectral lines from intergalactic gases

Answer: B. XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite), launched 1 January 2024 by PSLV-C58, is India's first and the world's second X-ray polarimetry mission after NASA's IXPE. Payloads: POLIX (polarimeter, 8–30 keV) built by the Raman Research Institute, and XSPECT (spectroscopy). It studies pulsars, black holes and neutron stars.

Q64 · Space, Science & Technology

Which mission observes solar activity impacting Earth’s space weather?

  1. Astrosat
  2. Bhaskara-II
  3. Aditya-L1
  4. RISAT-2

Answer: C. Aditya-L1 at Lagrange point L1 continuously watches the Sun — corona, flares, CMEs, solar wind — which drive space weather that affects satellites, GPS and power grids on Earth. AstroSat (2015) is India's multi-wavelength space observatory.

Q65 · Biology

A patient is diagnosed with a deficiency of ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone). Which of the following conditions would they most likely exhibit?

  1. High blood sugar levels
  2. Excessive urination and thirst
  3. Excessive pain in bones
  4. Reduced calcium levels in blood

Answer: B. ADH (vasopressin) is made by the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary. It makes the kidneys reabsorb water. Its deficiency causes diabetes insipidus : large volumes of dilute urine (polyuria) and excessive thirst (polydipsia). High blood sugar is diabetes mellitus (insulin).

Q66 · Geography

The Guru Gobind Sagar Lake, a large artificial lake in India, was primarily formed for which of the following purposes?

  1. Promoting tourism and recreational activities
  2. Enhancing biodiversity and wildlife conservation
  3. Hydropower generation and irrigation
  4. Desalination of seawater for drinking

Answer: C. Gobind Sagar is the reservoir of the Bhakra Dam on the Sutlej (Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh). The Bhakra–Nangal project (Nehru called dams 'temples of modern India') provides hydropower and irrigation to Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.

Q67 · Geography

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched regarding soil origin?

  1. Black Soil - Sedimentary formation
  2. Red Soil — Igneous origin
  3. Alluvial Soil — Volcanic activity
  4. Desert Soil — Alluvial deposition

Answer: B. Red soil forms on crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks (granite, gneiss) in low-rainfall areas. It is red from iron oxide and yellow when hydrated. Black soil comes from basaltic lava (Deccan Traps), and alluvial soil is deposited by rivers.

Q68 · Art & Culture

Originating from Punjab and often sung by camel riders, which vocal form is known for its fast, intricate taans and rapid changes in melodic phrases, making it distinct from other Hindustani classical genres?

  1. Thumri
  2. Khayal
  3. Tappa
  4. Dhrupad

Answer: C. Tappa came from the folk songs of Punjab's camel drivers . It was refined by Shori Miyan (Ghulam Nabi) at the Lucknow court. It has fast, knotted, jerky taans (zamzama) and is usually sung in ragas like Kafi, Bhairavi and Khamaj.

Q69 · Art & Culture

Which vocal form gained prominence in the 18th century and is recognized for its flexibility, allowing for more improvisation and ornamentation, and serving as the most popular classical vocal style today?

  1. Khayal
  2. Thumri
  3. Tappa
  4. Dhrupad

Answer: A. Khayal ('imagination') rose in the 18th century under Muhammad Shah Rangila's court (Sadarang and Adarang). It allows free improvisation — alaap, bol-taan, taans, sargam — and is today the most popular Hindustani vocal form . Gharanas: Gwalior (the oldest), Agra, Kirana, Jaipur-Atrauli.

Q70 · Economy

How was India’s adoption of a ‘socialist pattern of society,’ particularly from the Second Five Year Plan onward, primarily reflected in its economic structure?

  1. Exclusive reliance on private capital for industrial growth.
  2. Extensive state control over key industries and infrastructure.
  3. Complete nationalization of all agricultural land.
  4. Prioritizing consumer goods production over heavy industries.

Answer: B. The ' socialist pattern of society ' (Avadi Congress, 1955; Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956) put the state in control of the 'commanding heights' . Schedule A industries (17, e.g. heavy industry, defence, atomic energy, railways) were reserved for the public sector. The Second Plan (Mahalanobis) stressed heavy industry.

Q71 · Economy

Despite the overarching import substitution strategy, the Indian economy in the late 1980s began to show signs of which subtle shift in its trade policy outlook?

  1. Full-scale convertibility of the Rupee.
  2. Active dismantling of all tariffs and quotas.
  3. Selective export promotion and partial liberalization.
  4. Complete abandonment of public sector trade.

Answer: C. In the 1980s (Rajiv Gandhi era), India began cautious liberalisation : easing licensing (broad-banding), export incentives, technology imports and partial import liberalisation (OGL expansion). This 'reform by stealth' preceded the full 1991 reforms.

Q72 · Geography

Consider the following statements regarding the spatial distribution of language families in India: 1. The Austric language family, one of the oldest in India, is primarily concentrated in the Indo-Gangetic plains. 2. The Dravidian language family is exclusively found south of the Vindhya mountain range. 3. Languages of the Sino-Tibetan family are spoken predominantly in the Himalayan and North-Eastern regions of India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1 and 2
  2. Only 2 and 3
  3. Only 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: C. Statement 1 is wrong: Austric (Munda) languages such as Santali, Mundari and Ho are found in the tribal belt of Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal and central India, not the Gangetic plains. Statement 2 is wrong: Dravidian also has northern outliers like Kurukh, Malto, Gondi, and Brahui in Pakistan. Statement 3 ( Sino-Tibetan in the Himalayas and North-East) is correct.

Q73 · Sports

Which Indian state is best known for promoting paragliding at Bir Billing?

  1. Uttarakhand
  2. Manipur
  3. Himachal Pradesh
  4. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: C. Bir Billing (Kangra, Himachal Pradesh ) is India's paragliding capital. Take-off is at Billing (about 2,400 m) and landing at Bir. It hosted the Paragliding World Cup in 2015. Bir also has Tibetan monasteries.

Q74 · Medieval History

During the Sultanate and Mughal periods, which of the following factors were instrumental in the significant growth and development of new towns and cities? 1. The establishment of imperial capitals and administrative centers. 2. The flourishing of internal and external trade routes. 3. The increasing demand for specialized crafts and artisanal goods.

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: D. Medieval urbanisation grew from all three factors: imperial and administrative capitals (Delhi, Agra, Fatehpur Sikri, Lahore), thriving inland and overseas trade (Surat, Masulipatnam, Hooghly), and demand for specialised crafts (karkhanas making textiles, metalwork and luxury goods for the nobility). So 1, 2 and 3 are all correct.

Q75 · Art & Culture

Which of the following pairs correctly describes a core element or form in Indian classical music?

  1. Bandish : Rhythmic improvisation during a performance
  2. Dhrupad : One of the oldest and most austere forms of Hindustani classical music
  3. Alap : A fast-paced section introducing the rhythmic cycle of a raga
  4. Tarana : A purely instrumental composition performed without any lyrics

Answer: B. Dhrupad is one of the oldest, most austere Hindustani forms, sung with the pakhawaj. Correct definitions for the distractors: alaap is the slow, unmetred introduction to a raga; bandish is a fixed composition; tarana is a vocal form using syllables like 'ta, na, dir, dim' (credited to Amir Khusrau).

Q76 · Sports

Where was the 8th Elite Men National Boxing Championship 2024 held?

  1. Bhubaneswar, Odisha
  2. Bareilly, Uttar Pradesh
  3. Mumbai, Maharashtra
  4. Panaji, Goa

Answer: B. As per the answer key, the 8th Elite Men's National Boxing Championships (2024) were held in Bareilly, Uttar Pradesh , organised by the Boxing Federation of India.

Q77 · Sports

Consider the following statements and choose the correct option: 1. The Arjuna Award is given for lifetime coaching achievements. 2. Khelo india promotes sports culture among youth. 3. SAI runs national sports academies.

  1. Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: B. The Arjuna Award (1961) honours outstanding sportspersons , not coaches. The Dronacharya Award is for coaches, including lifetime achievement. Khelo India (2018) promotes grassroots sports among youth, and SAI runs National Centres of Excellence and academies. So only 2 and 3 are correct.

Q78 · Ancient History

The Rigveda was composed primarily in which region?

  1. Saurashtra
  2. Punjab and North-West India
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. Bengal

Answer: B. The Rigveda (about 1500–1000 BCE) was composed in the Sapta Sindhu region, the land of seven rivers: Punjab and north-west India, around the Indus and its tributaries plus the Saraswati. Later Vedic culture shifted east to the Ganga–Yamuna doab.

Q79 · Economy

What does “current account surplus” indicate about India’s trade balance in Q4FY25?

  1. Exports > Imports
  2. Imports > Exports
  3. Only capital receipt
  4. Large fiscal deficit

Answer: A. The current account covers the trade balance in goods and services, plus remittances and primary income. A surplus means receipts exceed payments. In Q4 FY25 (January–March 2025), India posted a small surplus of about $13.5 billion (1.3% of GDP), helped by services exports and remittances, though the goods trade was still in deficit.

Q80 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Which book by Arundhati Roy won the Booker Prize in 1997?

  1. The White Tiger
  2. The God of Small Things
  3. Sea of Poppies
  4. A Suitable Boy

Answer: B. The God of Small Things by Arundhati Roy won the Booker Prize 1997 . It is set in Ayemenem, Kerala. Other Indian-origin Booker winners: Salman Rushdie (1981), Kiran Desai (2006), Aravind Adiga (2008, 'The White Tiger').

Q81 · Polity & Governance

Which mechanism promotes consultation and coordination between Union and States, especially on matters like GST?

  1. Zonal Councils
  2. NITI Aayog
  3. Finance Commission
  4. Inter-State Council

Answer: D. The Inter-State Council (Article 263) was set up in 1990 on the Sarkaria Commission's advice, with the PM as Chairman, for Centre–State consultation and coordination. (For GST specifically, the constitutional body is the GST Council , Art 279A, chaired by the Union Finance Minister.)

Q82 · Geography

As of July 2025, what is the Earth’s only natural satellite?

  1. Mars
  2. Moon
  3. Venus
  4. Ganymede

Answer: B. The Moon is Earth's only permanent natural satellite. It is about 3,84,400 km away, and its gravity is about one-sixth of Earth's. Mars and Venus are planets, and Ganymede is Jupiter's moon, the largest in the solar system.

Q83 · Economy

Which new policy allowed foreign companies to own up to 51% in Indian firms in certain sectors after 1991?

  1. FDI reforms
  2. Land reforms
  3. MSP policy
  4. Monopolies control policy

Answer: A. The 1991 Industrial Policy (FDI reforms) allowed automatic approval of up to 51% foreign equity in 34 high-priority industries, replacing the FERA-era 40% cap. FDI limits have since been raised, up to 100% in many sectors.

Q84 · Economy

Which major global economic institution provided assistance during India's 1991 crisis, requiring economic reforms?

  1. World Bank
  2. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  3. Asian Development Bank
  4. United Nations

Answer: B. In the 1991 balance-of-payments crisis India took an IMF Stand-By Arrangement and Compensatory Financing Facility loan, with conditions for structural adjustment: fiscal consolidation, devaluation and liberalisation. The World Bank also gave a structural adjustment loan.

Q85 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Who is the Chairperson of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) as of July 2025?

  1. Ajay Kumar
  2. Arvind Saxena
  3. Pradeep Kumar Joshi
  4. Sanjay Malhotra

Answer: A. Ajay Kumar (a former Defence Secretary) became UPSC Chairman in May 2025, succeeding Preeti Sudan. The UPSC is a constitutional body under Articles 315–323, and its members are appointed by the President for 6 years or until age 65.

Q86 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Which financial support scheme targets women's entrepreneurship, as per the 2025 updates?

  1. Stand-Up India
  2. Nari Shakti Scheme
  3. Mahila Udyam Yojana
  4. PM Kusum Women

Answer: A. Stand-Up India (2016) gives bank loans of ₹10 lakh–₹1 crore to at least one SC/ST and one woman entrepreneur per bank branch for greenfield enterprises. Budget 2025–26 announced a new term-loan scheme (up to ₹2 crore) for 5 lakh first-time women, SC and ST entrepreneurs.

Q87 · Chemistry

What is the chemical symbol for water?

  1. COs
  2. H2O
  3. Oz
  4. HO2

Answer: B. Water is H₂O : two hydrogen atoms bonded to one oxygen. It is a polar molecule and a 'universal solvent', and boils at 100 °C at sea level. Heavy water, D₂O, is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors.

Q88 · Space, Science & Technology

In which Indian city is the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre located?

  1. Chennai
  2. Mumbai
  3. Hyderabad
  4. Kolkata

Answer: B. BARC is at Trombay, Mumbai . It began as AEET in 1954 and was renamed after Homi Bhabha in 1967. Other centres: IGCAR (Kalpakkam, TN), RRCAT (Indore), VECC (Kolkata).

Q89 · Modern History

Which Act made the practice of Sati illegal in British India?

  1. Hindu Widow's Remarriage Act 1856
  2. Bengal Sati Regulation 1829
  3. Indian Penal Code 1860
  4. Caste Disabilities Removal Act 1850

Answer: B. The Bengal Sati Regulation XVII (4 December 1829) by Lord William Bentinck declared sati illegal and punishable, first in Bengal and then in Madras and Bombay. Widow remarriage was legalised by the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act 1856, championed by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar and passed under Lord Canning.

Q90 · Art & Culture

The festival marking Ram's victory over Ravana, with ‘Ramlila’ plays and burning effigies, is called:

  1. Diwali
  2. Holi
  3. Dussehra
  4. Eid-ul-Adha

Answer: C. Dussehra (Vijayadashami) , on the 10th day after Navratri, marks Rama's victory over Ravana, celebrated with Ramlila and burning effigies of Ravana, Kumbhakarna and Meghnad. It also marks Durga's victory over Mahishasura. Mysuru Dasara and Kullu Dussehra are famous.

Q91 · Art & Culture

Which eco-centric, tribal festival in Arunachal Pradesh, marked by rituals for good harvest, is celebrated by the Apatani tribe?

  1. Hornbill Festival
  2. Dree Festival
  3. Losar
  4. Wangala

Answer: B. The Dree festival (July) of the Apatani tribe (Ziro valley, Arunachal Pradesh) is an agricultural festival praying for a bumper harvest and protection from pests. Myoko is another Apatani festival. Wangala is Garo (Meghalaya), Hornbill is Nagaland, and Losar is the Tibetan/Monpa new year.

Q92 · Economy

Which sector saw the largest increase in its GDP share from 1950-90 due to planning and public sector investment?

  1. Services
  2. Agriculture
  3. Industry
  4. Trade

Answer: C. From 1950 to 1990 the share of industry in GDP rose from about 11–13% to about 25%, thanks to the Plans' public-sector-led industrialisation. The share of agriculture fell from about 55% to about 33%. (After 1991, services became the largest sector.)

Q93 · Environment & Ecology

How many pollutants are used in India's official AQI calculation since its launch?

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 8
  4. 10

Answer: C. India's National Air Quality Index (launched 2014 under Swachh Bharat) uses 8 pollutants : PM10, PM2.5, NO₂, SO₂, CO, O₃, NH₃ and Pb. There are 6 categories, from Good (0–50) to Severe (401–500).

Q94 · Polity & Governance

What does the ‘basic structure doctrine’ established by the Supreme Court hold?

  1. All Parliament amendments are valid
  2. Parliament cannot alter the core identity of the Constitution
  3. Any emergency can alter rights
  4. None of the above

Answer: B. The basic structure doctrine comes from Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) , a 13-judge bench. Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368, but cannot destroy its basic structure: supremacy of the Constitution, secularism, federalism, judicial review, democracy, and so on.

Q95 · Economy

What is the principal macroeconomic indicator used to measure the overall value of all final goods and services produced within India’s borders?

  1. GDP
  2. NSDP
  3. CPI
  4. GNP

Answer: A. GDP is the market value of all final goods and services produced within a country's borders in a year. GNP adds net factor income from abroad. NSDP is state-level, and CPI measures retail inflation.

Q96 · Art & Culture

Which state is associated with the folk dance “Bardo Chham”?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. Manipur
  4. Odisha

Answer: A. Bardo Chham is a masked folk dance of the Sherdukpen tribe (West Kameng, Arunachal Pradesh). Dancers wear masks of 12 animals that represent the 12 evils or demons fought off every month, following Buddhist mythology.

Q97 · Environment & Ecology

What was India’s global rank in the World Air Quality Report 2025?

  1. 3rd
  2. 4th
  3. 6th
  4. 10th

Answer: C. In IQAir's World Air Quality Report , India ranked 5th most polluted country in the 2024 edition (released March 2025), and 6th in the 2025 edition as per the key. Chad, Bangladesh and Pakistan are usually near the top, and Delhi is repeatedly the most polluted capital.

Q98 · Polity & Governance

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, the term “Document” is defined under which section?

  1. Section 2(6)
  2. Section 2(8)
  3. Section 2(10)
  4. Section 2(12)

Answer: B. As per the answer key, Section 2(8) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 defines ' document '. The definition now expressly includes electronic and digital records. Section 2 contains the definitions (e.g. child, counterfeit, court, death).

Q99 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Which sportsperson received the Padma Shri 2026 award?

  1. Rohit Sharma
  2. Virat Kohli
  3. Rani Rampal
  4. Neeraj Chopra

Answer: A. As per the answer key, cricketer Rohit Sharma (India's T20 World Cup 2024 and Champions Trophy 2025 winning captain) received the Padma Shri in 2026 . The Padma awards (Vibhushan, Bhushan, Shri) are announced on Republic Day eve.

Q100 · Art & Culture

Amrita Sher-Gil was a renowned personality in which of the following fields?

  1. Classical Dance
  2. Literature
  3. Painting
  4. Sports

Answer: C. Amrita Sher-Gil (1913–1941), of Hungarian-Indian descent, was a pioneer of modern Indian painting (e.g. 'Three Girls', 'Bride's Toilet'). She blended Western techniques with Indian themes, and her works are National Art Treasures.

11 Sep, Shift 2

Q51 · Modern History

Why was the Doctrine of Lapse so deeply resented among Indian rulers?

  1. It required rulers to convert to Christianity
  2. It forced Indian states to abolish zamindari
  3. It denied adopted heirs the right to succeed, undermining traditional succession
  4. It imposed direct military rule on all states

Answer: C. Under Dalhousie's Doctrine of Lapse , an adopted son (dattak) could inherit private property but not the kingdom. This broke the Hindu custom of adoption and the rulers' sense of sovereignty. Nana Saheb (adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II, whose pension was stopped) and Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi became leaders of the 1857 revolt partly because of it.

Q52 · Books, Awards & Personalities

What common literary strategy is used in works like Tamas (Bhisham Sahni), Train to Pakistan (Khushwant Singh), and Basti (Intizar Hussain) to depict the Partition?

  1. Direct historical narrative from political leaders
  2. Use of mythological allegory
  3. Ground-level human narratives filled with moral ambiguity and trauma
  4. Focus on celebratory nationalism

Answer: C. Partition literature — Tamas (Hindi, Bhisham Sahni), Train to Pakistan (English, Khushwant Singh), Basti (Urdu, Intizar Husain), Manto's short stories — tells the violence of 1947 through ordinary people's experiences: trauma, displacement and moral ambiguity, rather than political leaders' narratives.

Q53 · Ancient History

In contrast to contemporary ancient civilizations like Egypt and Mesopotamia, the architecture of the Indus Valley Civilization notably lacks:

  1. Use of mud bricks in construction
  2. Monumental religious structures like temples or pyramids
  3. Fortification walls around cities
  4. Drainage and sanitation infrastructure

Answer: B. Harappan cities (Mohenjo-daro, Harappa, Dholavira, Lothal) had grid planning, baked bricks, citadels, fortifications and covered drains. Unlike Egypt's pyramids or Mesopotamia's ziggurats, they have no clearly identified temples, palaces or monumental tombs . The Great Bath is the closest thing to a ritual structure.

Q54 · Art & Culture

Which of the following elements of Yakshagana most accurately distinguishes it from other Indian folk-theatre traditions such as Therukoothu (Tamil Nadu) and Jatra (Bengal) in terms of structure, performance dynamics, and cultural synthesis?

  1. Use of spontaneous dialogues and comic interludes by clown figures to engage rural audiences.
  2. Integration of classical Carnatic music with Sanskrit shlokas in a rigidly scripted format.
  3. Unique combination of dance-drama, improvised dialogues, live music, and distinctive make-up and costumes, performed overnight in open-air settings with a dual structure of Himmela (musicians) and Mummela (actors).
  4. Reliance on fixed mythological scripts with minimal improvisation and emphasis on devotional songs without dance.

Answer: C. Yakshagana (coastal Karnataka) combines dance, improvised dialogue (maatugaarike), live music (the bhagavata sings, with chande and maddale drums), elaborate make-up, headgear and costumes , and all-night performances of Puranic stories. It has two styles: Tenkutittu (south) and Badagutittu (north).

Q55 · Art & Culture

The Koothuru Festival is associated with which ancient temple dedicated to the Sun God in Andhra Pradesh?

  1. Suryanar Kovil, Tamil Nadu
  2. Konark Sun Temple
  3. Arasavalli Surya Narayana Temple
  4. Modhera Sun Temple

Answer: C. The Arasavalli Suryanarayana Temple (Srikakulam, Andhra Pradesh) is an ancient Sun temple said to be built by the Eastern Gangas (7th century). On Ratha Saptami and the equinox days the sun's rays fall on the idol's feet. Other Sun temples: Konark (Odisha), Modhera (Gujarat), Martand (Kashmir), Suryanar Kovil (Tamil Nadu).

Q56 · Art & Culture

What is the main focus of the Kanuma festival?

  1. Worshipping rivers
  2. Honoring livestock, especially cattle
  3. Celebrating harvest
  4. Lighting lamps

Answer: B. Kanuma is the third day of Sankranti in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, dedicated to cattle : cows and bullocks are washed, decorated and worshipped. It is like Mattu Pongal in Tamil Nadu. The four days are Bhogi, Sankranti, Kanuma and Mukkanuma.

Q57 · Art & Culture

The Kumbh Mela rotates among four locations. Which of the following is not one of them?

  1. Haridwar
  2. Prayagraj
  3. Varanasi
  4. Nashik

Answer: C. The Kumbh Mela (a UNESCO Intangible Heritage, 2017) rotates among Prayagraj (Ganga–Yamuna–Saraswati), Haridwar (Ganga), Ujjain (Shipra) and Nashik–Trimbakeshwar (Godavari). Varanasi is not a Kumbh site. The Maha Kumbh 2025 at Prayagraj drew over 60 crore pilgrims.

Q58 · Art & Culture

How do Bhopa and Bhopa-Bhopi songs function as a unique oral tradition of ritualistic storytelling in Rajasthan, and what distinguishes their performance style from other folk music genres in the region?

  1. By relying primarily on written scripts and formal theatrical staging
  2. By combining music, narration, and visual aids (such as painted scrolls) to narrate epic tales of local deities and heroes in a ritual context, performed by a duo where the Bhopa sings and the Bhopi assists, thus blending devotion, entertainment, and community memory
  3. By focusing solely on dance without any narrative or musical components
  4. By performing exclusively at urban music festivals without any ritual significance

Answer: B. Bhopas are Rajasthani priest-singers who perform the Phad tradition. Singing to the ravanhatta (a string instrument), they narrate epics of folk deities like Pabuji and Devnarayan in front of a long painted cloth scroll (phad), lit by a lamp. The Bhopi (wife) holds the lamp and joins the singing.

Q59 · Art & Culture

In the context of Assam’s cultural landscape, how do Zikir and Zari music traditions uniquely contribute to the region's religious pluralism and syncretism?

  1. By strictly adhering to orthodox Islamic musical practices without incorporating local elements
  2. By blending Assamese linguistic and musical styles with Islamic devotional themes, fostering communal harmony and reflecting Assam’s inclusive spiritual heritage
  3. By rejecting all forms of indigenous Assamese instruments in favor of imported Middle Eastern instruments exclusively
  4. By being confined only to mosque rituals without any public or cultural presence

Answer: B. Zikir and Zari are Assamese devotional songs attributed to the 17th-century Sufi saint Ajan Fakir (Shah Miran) . They express Islamic teaching in the Assamese language and folk melodies, similar to Vaishnavite borgeet, and so reflect the region's syncretic culture.

Q60 · Art & Culture

Which of the following statements best captures the core socio-cultural function of Villuppattu within Tamil Nadu's folk music tradition?

  1. It serves primarily as a courtly entertainment form associated with royal patrons.
  2. It promotes classical raga-based compositions through highly technical improvisation.
  3. It functions as a medium of narrative storytelling, often used to spread social, moral, and religious messages in rural communities.
  4. It is a solo dance-based form performed during agricultural harvests with no lyrical component.

Answer: C. Villu Paatu ('bow song') of southern Tamil Nadu and Kerala uses a large bow fitted with bells as the main instrument. A lead singer narrates stories — folk deities, epics, social messages — with a chorus. It is used for moral education and awareness in rural areas.

Q61 · Art & Culture

Which raga system forms the foundation of Carnatic compositions in the Andhra school, as codified in the 17th century by Venkatamakhin?

  1. Janaka Raga Paddhati
  2. Ashta Raga Melas
  3. Mela Karta System
  4. Nava Rasa Scheme

Answer: C. Venkatamakhin (17th century, Thanjavur) in his Chaturdandi Prakasika worked out the 72 Melakarta (parent raga) system . It is the foundation for classifying Carnatic ragas, and Govindacharya later standardised the names. Janya ragas are derived from these melakartas.

Q62 · Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements about the Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) Scheme is incorrect?

  1. FTSCs are established primarily to expedite the trial of cases related to sexual offences against women and children
  2. The scheme provides financial assistance from the Central Government for setting up and running FTSCs in States and Union Territories.
  3. FTSCs have jurisdiction only over cases registered after the establishment of the court and cannot try pending cases.
  4. The scheme encourages States to appoint dedicated public prosecutors and support staff to ensure speedy justice in FTSCs.

Answer: C. The Fast Track Special Courts scheme (2019, Centrally Sponsored, under the Nirbhaya Fund) speeds up trials of rape and POCSO Act cases ; about 750 FTSCs, including exclusive POCSO courts, are functional. They clear pending backlog cases too, so the statement that they cannot try pending cases is the incorrect one.

Q63 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Which of the following statements most accurately captures a key reform introduced under the revamped Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) from Kharif 2020 onwards, particularly addressing issues of transparency and timely claim settlement?

  1. The revamped scheme removed all private insurers and made crop insurance mandatory for all farmers receiving institutional credit
  2. States were allowed to fix their own actuarial premium rates without reference to the central subsidy cap.
  3. Enrollment under PMFBY was made entirely voluntary for all farmers, and a Crop Insurance Portal with GPS-based Crop Cutting Experiments (CCEs) was introduced to reduce delays in claim settlement.
  4. The central government withdrew its financial contribution to premium subsidies for states with low penetration, making the scheme optional for them.

Answer: C. The revamped PMFBY (Kharif 2020) made enrolment voluntary for all farmers , including loanee farmers who were earlier compulsorily covered. It also added technology: the National Crop Insurance Portal, CCE-Agri app, YES-TECH (remote sensing) and smartphone-based crop cutting. Farmer premium stays at 2% (kharif), 1.5% (rabi) and 5% (commercial/horticulture).

Q64 · Biology

Which of the following statements best explains the evolutionary and ecological significance of marsupials, particularly in relation to their geographic distribution and adaptive radiation?

  1. Marsupials are a subclass of placental mammals that evolved in Asia but were later restricted to the Neotropics due to competition from monotremes.
  2. Marsupials are limited to Australia and New Zealand because they require unique eucalyptus-based diets, making them vulnerable outside those ecosystems.
  3. Marsupials represent an example of parallel evolution, having diversified independently in Australasia and South America, often filling ecological niches similar to placental mammals through convergent evolution.
  4. Marsupials dominate the mammalian fauna of Africa due to the absence of large placental predators, allowing their evolutionary persistence.

Answer: C. Marsupials (pouched mammals: kangaroo, koala, opossum) survive mainly in Australia and the Americas (the opossum). Isolated in Australia, they underwent adaptive radiation , evolving forms that parallel placental mammals, e.g. the marsupial mole, flying phalanger and Tasmanian wolf. This is a classic example of convergent or parallel evolution.

Q65 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following statements about the Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) telescope is incorrect?

  1. MACE is designed to detect very high-energy gamma rays by observing Cherenkov radiation produced in the Earth's atmosphere.
  2. It is located at Hanle in Ladakh, one of the highest gamma-ray observatory sites in the world, benefiting from low atmospheric interference.
  3. MACE uses space-based sensors to directly detect cosmic gamma rays without atmospheric distortion.
  4. The telescope helps in understanding astrophysical phenomena such as supernova remnants, pulsars, and active galactic nuclei through gamma-ray observations.

Answer: C. MACE (Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment), at Hanle, Ladakh (about 4,300 m), is the world's highest imaging Cherenkov telescope and Asia's largest (21 m dish). It was built by BARC and ECIL and inaugurated in 2024. It is ground-based and detects gamma rays indirectly, so 'space-based sensors' is the incorrect statement.

Q66 · Geography

Which of the following statements best explains why the inner core of the Earth remains solid, despite temperatures being similar to or even higher than the outer core?

  1. The inner core is composed of materials that have extremely low melting points.
  2. The gravitational pull at Earth's center compresses the inner core, raising its melting point beyond ambient temperature.
  3. The magnetic field of the Earth solidifies the inner core through electromagnetic crystallization.
  4. Convection currents in the mantle cool the inner core more rapidly than the outer layers.

Answer: B. The inner core is hotter than about 5,000 °C but stays solid because the enormous pressure (about 3.6 million atm) raises iron's melting point above the actual temperature. The outer core is under less pressure and so remains liquid. Convection there drives Earth's magnetic field (the geodynamo).

Q67 · Space, Science & Technology

Why is the Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment Telescope (MACE) considered a significant milestone in India’s advancement in high-energy astrophysics, and how does it differ fundamentally from conventional optical telescopes?

  1. MACE uses radar reflections to detect charged particles, unlike optical telescopes that rely on visible light.
  2. MACE is designed to directly observe cosmic rays in the ultraviolet range, offering better resolution than traditional optical telescopes.
  3. MACE detects very high-energy gamma rays indirectly by capturing Cherenkov radiation produced in the Earth’s atmosphere, unlike optical telescopes which observe direct light from celestial sources.
  4. MACE is a space-based telescope operating in low Earth orbit, enabling detection of infrared waves blocked by Earth's atmosphere.

Answer: C. Very-high-energy gamma rays are absorbed by the atmosphere, but they create particle showers that emit brief flashes of bluish Cherenkov light . MACE captures this light with a large segmented mirror to infer the gamma rays indirectly. It studies blazars, pulsars and supernova remnants, making it a milestone for Indian high-energy astrophysics.

Q68 · Biology

Which of the following statements best describes the design, working mechanism, and challenges associated with recombinant vector vaccines?

  1. Recombinant vector vaccines use inactivated whole pathogens to stimulate immunity and require multiple booster doses due to their low immunogenicity.
  2. These vaccines utilize a harmless viral or bacterial vector genetically engineered to express antigenic proteins of a target pathogen, eliciting a strong cellular and humoral immune response, but face challenges like vector immunity and stability issues.
  3. Recombinant vector vaccines directly inject synthetic antigenic peptides without involving any genetic material, leading to rapid but short-lived immunity.
  4. Such vaccines rely solely on the production of DNA plasmids without any viral components, making them ineffective against intracellular pathogens.

Answer: B. Recombinant vector vaccines use a harmless virus or bacterium (e.g. adenovirus) engineered to carry a gene for the target pathogen's antigen. The body then makes that antigen and builds immunity. Examples: Covishield (ChAdOx1), Sputnik V, some Ebola vaccines. Challenge: pre-existing immunity to the vector can reduce efficacy.

Q69 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following statements accurately describes the technological principles, potential applications, and key challenges associated with Augmented Reality (AR)?

  1. Augmented Reality fully immerses users in a virtual environment by replacing the physical world, primarily used in gaming and simulations, but limited by high hardware costs and motion sickness issues.
  2. AR overlays computer-generated digital information onto the real-world environment in real time, enhancing perception and interaction in fields like healthcare, education, and defense, but faces challenges such as hardware limitations, privacy concerns, and context-awareness.
  3. AR involves the use of brain-computer interfaces to directly manipulate neural activity for enhanced cognitive functions, with limited current commercial applications but significant ethical concerns.
  4. AR technology depends solely on pre-recorded video content to provide user experiences, lacking real-time interactivity and adaptability to changing environments.

Answer: B. Augmented Reality (AR) overlays digital content onto the real world in real time (e.g. Pokémon Go, Google Lens, AR in surgery and training). Virtual Reality replaces the real world with a fully immersive one. AR challenges: hardware cost, privacy and battery limits.

Q70 · Biology

Which vitamin deficiency is most likely to impair night vision?

  1. Vitamin C
  2. Vitamin A
  3. Vitamin D
  4. Vitamin K

Answer: B. Vitamin A (retinol) is needed to make rhodopsin (visual purple) in the rod cells, which work in dim light. Deficiency causes night blindness (nyctalopia) and xerophthalmia. Sources: carrots (beta-carotene), leafy greens, fish liver oil. Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy, vitamin D rickets, and vitamin K bleeding.

Q71 · Economy

Which of the following statements best explains the concept of "shrinkflation" in the context of consumer markets and its macroeconomic implications in India?

  1. Shrinkflation refers to a deliberate strategy where producers reduce the price of goods while keeping their quality and quantity constant, primarily to gain competitive advantage during deflationary periods.
  2. Shrinkflation denotes a phenomenon where producers reduce the size or quantity of a product while maintaining its price, often to cope with rising input costs, which may distort inflation measurements and consumer welfare assessments.
  3. Shrinkflation is a temporary monetary tool used by central banks to shrink currency supply in response to hyperinflation, generally accompanied by contractionary fiscal policies.
  4. Shrinkflation describes a scenario in which shrinking foreign exchange reserves lead to inflation in essential goods due to higher import prices.

Answer: B. Shrinkflation : firms cut pack size or quantity but keep the price the same, a hidden price rise. Because official inflation indices may not fully capture it, it can understate real inflation. It was common in FMCG goods (biscuits, chips, soaps) during the 2022–23 input-cost spikes.

Q72 · Physics

What key consequence arises from Maxwell’s equations regarding the nature of electromagnetic waves?

  1. EM waves can only travel through a medium.
  2. EM waves are transverse and propagate through vacuum at the speed of sound.
  3. A changing electric field produces a magnetic field and vice versa, enabling self-sustaining wave propagation in a vacuum.
  4. EM waves have circular polarization that bends in magnetic fields.

Answer: C. Maxwell's equations show that a changing electric field produces a magnetic field and vice versa. These mutually sustaining fields travel as transverse electromagnetic waves , even in a vacuum, at c = 1/√(μ₀ε₀) ≈ 3×10⁸ m/s. This proved light is an EM wave; Hertz confirmed radio waves.

Q73 · Physics

What is the real-world implication of Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle in advanced particle experiments?

  1. It allows simultaneous precise measurement of position and momentum at atomic scales.
  2. It limits the accuracy of measurements in classical systems like satellites.
  3. It states that the more precisely we know a particle's position, the less precisely we can know its momentum, affecting subatomic behavior.
  4. It implies particles lose energy when observed, contradicting conservation laws.

Answer: C. Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle : Δx·Δp ≥ h/4π. Position and momentum cannot both be measured exactly at the same time. It is a fundamental limit of nature, not a flaw of instruments, and matters at atomic scales in particle experiments and electron microscopy.

Q74 · Economy

Which of the following best captures the structural reasons behind the phenomenon of ‘jobless growth' in India, particularly in the post-1991 reform period?

  1. Excessive investment in agriculture and primary sector productivity
  2. High population growth rate exceeding labor force demand
  3. A growth model led by capital-intensive and service sectors with limited employment elasticity
  4. Deliberate government policy to curb rural employment in favor of urbanization

Answer: C. Jobless growth means high GDP growth without matching job creation. In India, post-1991 growth was led by capital- and skill-intensive industry and services (IT, finance) with low employment elasticity. Labour-intensive manufacturing lagged, and agriculture still holds surplus labour (disguised unemployment).

Q75 · Economy

Which of the following correctly describes the purpose and consequence of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956?

  1. It abolished licensing and promoted private sector entry into all sectors of the economy.
  2. It introduced a mixed economy model by clearly demarcating sectors between public and private domains, reinforcing state control over key industries.
  3. It focused on fiscal decentralization by allowing states to independently formulate industrial policies.
  4. It removed trade barriers and prioritized export-led industrialisation.

Answer: B. The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956 (the 'economic constitution') divided industries into three schedules: Schedule A (17, exclusively state), Schedule B (12, mixed — state to take the lead), and the rest private. It reinforced a mixed economy with state dominance, along with the Mahalanobis plan and licensing (IDRA 1951).

Q76 · Geography

Which river valley is most associated with the Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC)?

  1. Ganga
  2. Damodar
  3. Mahanadi
  4. Brahmaputra

Answer: B. The Damodar Valley Corporation (1948) was independent India's first multipurpose river valley project, modelled on the Tennessee Valley Authority (USA) . It covers the Damodar river ('Sorrow of Bengal') in Jharkhand and West Bengal, with dams at Tilaiya, Konar, Maithon and Panchet for flood control, power and irrigation.

Q77 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Who is the Indian-origin British economist and author of The Argumentative Indian, and also the recipient of the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences for work on welfare economics?

  1. Raghuram Rajan
  2. Abhijit Banerjee
  3. Amartya Sen
  4. Jagdish Bhagwati

Answer: C. Amartya Sen won the 1998 Nobel in Economics for welfare economics, famines and social choice. Books: 'The Argumentative Indian', 'Development as Freedom', 'Poverty and Famines'. He received the Bharat Ratna in 1999 and co-developed the HDI's capability approach. Abhijit Banerjee won the Nobel in 2019.

Q78 · Sports

Why was the 2022 National Games’ mascot 'Savaj', a lion from Gir Forest, strategically chosen for the event?

  1. Symbol of Gujarat’s wildlife conservation and pride
  2. Connection to India’s national animal
  3. Part of Indian Navy insignia
  4. Mascot for Indian Railways campaign

Answer: A. The 36th National Games (2022, Gujarat) had ' Savaj ' (the Gujarati word for lion), an Asiatic lion , as mascot. Gir National Park in Gujarat is the only home of the Asiatic lion, so the mascot symbolised Gujarat's wildlife conservation and pride.

Q79 · Sports

What is the significance of the term “Reti Opening” in chess?

  1. Named after a grandmaster known for psychological tricks
  2. A hypermodern strategy controlling center from flanks
  3. A sacrificial variation leading to early checkmate
  4. A defensive line in response to Sicilian Defense

Answer: B. The Réti Opening (1.Nf3 d5 2.c4) is named after Richard Réti. It is a hypermodern opening: rather than occupying the centre with pawns, it controls the centre from the flanks with pieces and fianchettoed bishops.

Q80 · Economy

Who among the following was the first Deputy Chairman of the Planning commission ?

  1. V.T. Krishnamachari
  2. C.M. Trivedi
  3. Gulzari Lal Nanda
  4. Ashok Mehta

Answer: C. Gulzarilal Nanda was the first Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission (1950) , with Nehru as Chairman. Nanda was also interim PM twice (1964, 1966) and received the Bharat Ratna in 1997. V.T. Krishnamachari was a later Deputy Chairman.

Q81 · Geography

India's physiographic divisions are diverse and include plateaus, plains, hills, and coastal regions. The Deccan Plateau is one of the largest volcanic plateaus in the world. Which of the following rivers does NOT originate from the Deccan Plateau?

  1. Godavari
  2. Krishna
  3. Ganga
  4. Tungabhadra

Answer: C. The Ganga rises from the Gangotri glacier (Gaumukh) in the Himalayas (Uttarakhand), as the Bhagirathi, which meets the Alaknanda at Devprayag. The Godavari rises at Trimbakeshwar, the Krishna near Mahabaleshwar, and the Tungabhadra (Tunga + Bhadra) in the Western Ghats, all on the Deccan Plateau.

Q82 · Geography

The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world. What is one major geological significance of this range in the Indian subcontinent?

  1. It forms a major river basin
  2. It acts as a climatic divide for monsoon winds
  3. It contains rich mineral resources
  4. It is a snow-fed mountain range

Answer: C. The Aravallis are among the world's oldest fold mountains (Proterozoic, over 1.5 billion years). Heavily eroded, they are rich in minerals : copper (Khetri), zinc–lead (Zawar), marble (Makrana), mica and limestone. Guru Shikhar (Mount Abu, 1,722 m) is the highest peak.

Q83 · Geography

The rural-urban migration in India is mostly driven by which of the following factors according to Census 2011?

  1. Political instability
  2. Educational expansion
  3. Lack of agricultural employment
  4. Access to entertainment and lifestyle

Answer: C. Census 2011 migration data shows marriage as the top reason overall (especially for women), and work/employment as the main reason for male rural-to-urban migration. The push factor is a lack of farm jobs and income in villages, and the pull factor is urban employment.

Q84 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

In the 2024 E-Government Development Index (EGDI), India scored high in digital services but lagged in one particular domain. What was that?

  1. Cybersecurity regulations
  2. Online payment volume
  3. Human capital and digital literacy in rural areas
  4. Digital taxation laws

Answer: C. The UN E-Government Survey 2024 ranked India 97th in EGDI. India does well on the Online Services Index (DigiLocker, UMANG, CoWIN) but lags on the Human Capital Index and telecom infrastructure — literacy, skills, rural digital access.

Q85 · Economy

In the context of India’s digital payments infrastructure, what is the primary objective of the Reserve Bank of India’s Project Nexus launched in recent years, and how does it aim to address the challenges in retail payment systems?

  1. Project Nexus aims to create a centralized digital identity database to replace Aadhaar for authentication in all payment transactions
  2. Project Nexus seeks to develop an interoperable, scalable, and resilient payment system that can handle high transaction volumes, reduce settlement risks, and unify various digital payment platforms to enhance efficiency and security
  3. Project Nexus is a government initiative to subsidize merchants for adopting QR-code based payments exclusively in rural areas
  4. Project Nexus involves the complete deregulation of payment systems, allowing private entities to operate without RBI oversight

Answer: B. Project Nexus is a BIS (Bank for International Settlements) initiative to connect domestic fast payment systems — UPI, Singapore's FAST, Malaysia's DuitNow, Thailand's PromptPay, the Philippines' InstaPay — into one network for instant cross-border retail payments . The RBI joined in June 2024, with the platform expected to go live around 2026.

Q86 · Art & Culture

Read the following statements regarding the Kachhi Ghodi folk dance and choose the correct option: Statement 1: The Kachhi Ghodi folk dance is performed by men from the Shekhawati region using a dummy horse. Statement 2: It is performed exclusively as a devotional ritual to honour local deities.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: A. Kachhi Ghodi is a Rajasthani folk dance from the Shekhawati region. Men wear an elaborate dummy horse and perform mock sword fights to flute and dhol, telling stories of local bandits and heroes (Bavaria), mostly at weddings. It is not only devotional, so only statement 1 is correct.

Q87 · Modern History

Which of the following statements correctly describes a defining characteristic of Lord Wellesley’s Subsidiary Alliance policy?

  1. It aimed at annexing Indian states if their rulers died without a natural male heir.
  2. It allowed Indian rulers to independently negotiate with other foreign powers.
  3. It compelled Indian rulers to disband their own armed forces and accept a permanent British contingent.
  4. It exclusively focused on increasing British revenue collection through direct taxation.

Answer: C. Wellesley's Subsidiary Alliance (1798) : an Indian ruler accepted a permanent British force in his territory and paid for it (in cash or ceded land). He disbanded his own army , accepted a British Resident, and could not deal with other powers without British consent. Hyderabad (1798) was the first. Annexation for lack of an heir was Dalhousie's Doctrine of Lapse.

Q88 · Environment & Ecology

What public health advisory applies when AQI in Delhi exceeds 300 (‘Very Poor’)?

  1. Reduced outdoor activity
  2. Encourage jogging outside
  3. No restrictions
  4. Encourage open windows

Answer: A. AQI 301–400 (Very Poor) can cause respiratory illness on prolonged exposure, so people should reduce outdoor activity and exertion , especially children, the elderly and patients. At 401–500 (Severe) even healthy people are affected. Delhi's GRAP Stage III applies at 'Severe' (401–450).

Q89 · Polity & Governance

In BNS 2023, which crime can attract capital punishment by explicit provision post July 2024?

  1. Mob Lynching
  2. Theft
  3. Cheating
  4. Computer Hacking

Answer: A. BNS Section 103(2) covers murder by a group of 5 or more people on grounds of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief ( mob lynching ). It expressly allows the death penalty or life imprisonment. This is a new provision; the IPC had no specific lynching offence.

Q90 · Economy

What policy was used to protect Indian industries from foreign competition, especially until the 1980s?

  1. Free trade
  2. Import substitution and tariffs
  3. Export-led growth
  4. Deregulation

Answer: B. From the 1950s to the 1980s India followed import substitution , backed by high tariffs, import quotas and licensing , to protect infant domestic industry and save foreign exchange. It was dismantled in 1991.

Q91 · Economy

Under which plan was the Public Distribution System (PDS) for food grains launched at a national scale?

  1. 2nd Five Year Plan
  2. 4th Five Year Plan
  3. 5th Five Year Plan
  4. 6th Five Year Plan

Answer: C. Food rationing began in the 1940s, and PDS grew into a nationwide system in the 1960s–70s (FCI and the Agricultural Prices Commission, 1965). The key credits the Fifth Plan (1974–79) with its launch on a national scale. PDS was later revamped (RPDS, 1992) and targeted (TPDS, 1997), and is now under the NFSA 2013 and PM-GKAY.

Q92 · Sports

Which Olympic sport tests running, jumping, and throwing skills?

  1. Athletics
  2. Swimming
  3. Tennis
  4. Boxing

Answer: A. Athletics (track and field) covers running (sprints, middle and long distance, hurdles, relays, marathon), jumping (long, triple, high, pole vault) and throwing (shot put, discus, javelin, hammer), plus combined events like the decathlon and heptathlon.

Q93 · Art & Culture

Mohiniyattam, performed in white and gold attire, is identified with which aspect?

  1. Heroic war
  2. Feminine grace
  3. Acrobatics
  4. Martial art

Answer: B. Mohiniyattam is Kerala's classical dance of the ' enchantress ' (Mohini). It is solo, feminine and graceful (lasya), with gentle swaying movements, performed in a white-and-gold kasavu saree. It was revived by poet Vallathol at Kerala Kalamandalam (1930).

Q94 · Polity & Governance

The Law-making procedure in Indian Constitution is taken from:

  1. British Constitution
  2. Canadian Constitution
  3. French Constitution
  4. Irish Constitution

Answer: A. The law-making procedure comes from the British Constitution (Westminster model), along with the parliamentary form of government, rule of law, single citizenship, the cabinet system, the Speaker's office, bicameralism, and prerogative writs.

Q95 · Polity & Governance

The "residuary powers" in the Indian Constitution were inspired by the constitution of:

  1. Australia
  2. Canada
  3. South Africa
  4. United States of America

Answer: B. Residuary powers vested in the Centre (Article 248) come from Canada , along with 'federation with a strong Centre', the appointment of Governors by the Centre, and the Supreme Court's advisory jurisdiction. The Concurrent List comes from Australia.

Q96 · Polity & Governance

Which Article describes the composition of the Rajya Sabha?

  1. Article 79
  2. Article 80
  3. Article 81
  4. Article 82

Answer: B. Article 80 sets the composition of the Rajya Sabha : at most 250 members, of whom 12 are nominated by the President (art, literature, science, social service) and up to 238 represent states and UTs. It currently has 245. Seats are allocated under the Fourth Schedule.

Q97 · Polity & Governance

Which Article deals with the composition of the Lok Sabha?

  1. Article 75
  2. Article 77
  3. Article 79
  4. Article 81

Answer: D. Article 81 sets the composition of the Lok Sabha : at most 550 elected members (530 from states, 20 from UTs). The 104th Amendment (2019) ended the two nominated Anglo-Indian seats. It currently has 543 seats, frozen on the 1971 census until the first census after 2026.

Q98 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Which country ranked 1st in the World Press Freedom Index 2026?

  1. Denmark
  2. Estonia
  3. Netherlands
  4. Norway

Answer: D. Norway has topped RSF's World Press Freedom Index for many years running (and did so again in 2026 as per the key). Nordic countries and Estonia usually fill the top ranks, and Eritrea is typically last.

Q99 · Economy

Which policy included the abolition of industrial licensing for most sectors as a key step during the 1991 reforms?

  1. Liberalisation
  2. Privatisation
  3. Globalisation
  4. Nationalisation

Answer: A. Liberalisation removed state controls: the 1991 New Industrial Policy abolished licensing for all but 18 industries (now only a handful, e.g. alcohol, tobacco, defence, hazardous chemicals). It also ended MRTP asset limits and opened sectors reserved for the public sector.

Q100 · International Organisations & Relations

Which regions are interconnected through the IMEC corridor initiative?

  1. India to Middle East to Ethiopia
  2. India to Middle East to Europe
  3. India to Iran to Central Asia
  4. India to Mediterranean to Europe

Answer: B. IMEC links India → Middle East (UAE, Saudi Arabia, Jordan, Israel) → Europe (Greece/Italy) . It has an eastern corridor (India to the Gulf by sea) and a northern corridor (Gulf to Europe by rail and sea), with plans for energy pipelines and data cables.

12 Sep, Shift 1

Q51 · Modern History

Why were the 1772 and 1774 judicial reforms under Warren Hastings significant?

  1. They applied English criminal law to all Indians
  2. They introduced a dual legal system respecting personal laws of Hindus and Muslims
  3. They nationalized private property
  4. They created jury trials for peasants

Answer: B. Warren Hastings' Judicial Plan (1772) set up district Diwani (civil) and Faujdari (criminal) courts, with appeals to the Sadar Diwani and Sadar Nizamat Adalats. Cases were decided under Hindu law for Hindus and Muslim law for Muslims , aided by pandits and maulvis. He also sponsored the 'Code of Gentoo Laws'. The Regulating Act 1773 created the Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774).

Q52 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Temsula Ao’s award-winning work contributes significantly to which underrepresented theme in Indian literature?

  1. Urban alienation
  2. South Indian politics
  3. North-East India’s tribal identity and oral traditions
  4. Bollywood culture

Answer: C. Temsula Ao (Naga poet and writer, Padma Shri 2007, Sahitya Akademi 2013) wrote 'These Hills Called Home' and 'Laburnum for My Head'. Her work brings Naga oral traditions, tribal identity and the trauma of insurgency into Indian English literature.

Q53 · Art & Culture

The chhatri in Rajput architecture primarily serves what symbolic and functional purpose?

  1. Water conservation and air circulation
  2. Commemorative structure symbolizing honor
  3. Observatory for astronomical calculations
  4. Temple for deity worship

Answer: B. Chhatris ('umbrellas') are elevated, dome-shaped pavilions on pillars. In Rajput architecture they are mainly cenotaphs built at cremation sites to honour kings and nobles, e.g. Bada Bagh (Jaisalmer), Gaitore (Jaipur), Orchha. They are also decorative rooftop elements.

Q54 · Art & Culture

Raut Nacha, a traditional dance of Chhattisgarh, is primarily associated with which of the following socio-cultural aspects?

  1. It is a ritual dance performed by the tribal Baiga community to invoke rain during droughts.
  2. It is a martial folk dance of the Yadava community depicting tales of Lord Krishna and cowherd valor performed during Diwali.
  3. It is a devotional dance of the Satnami sect expressing reverence to Guru Ghasidas during religious festivals.
  4. It is a fertility dance performed by women during the Karma festival, symbolizing prosperity and agricultural bounty.

Answer: B. Raut Nacha of Chhattisgarh is performed by the Raut (Yadav) cowherd community after Diwali (around Dev Uthani Ekadashi). Dressed colourfully with sticks and shields, they dance in praise of Krishna and recite dohas, celebrating the victory of good over evil. The Bilaspur Raut Nacha Mahotsav is famous.

Q55 · Art & Culture

The Hornbill Festival is organized by which Indian tribal community/state to promote indigenous warrior traditions and crafts?

  1. Garo tribe - Meghalaya
  2. Apatani tribe - Arunachal Pradesh
  3. Naga tribes — Nagaland
  4. Khasi tribe - Meghalaya

Answer: C. The Hornbill Festival (1–10 December) is held at Kisama Heritage Village, near Kohima , by the Nagaland government. It showcases all the Naga tribes' culture — dances, warrior traditions, crafts, food — and is named after the hornbill, revered in Naga folklore. It is called the 'Festival of Festivals'.

Q56 · Art & Culture

In the socio-cultural context, Bhogi signifies the shift from which philosophical outlook to another?

  1. Materialism to asceticism
  2. Darkness to enlightenment
  3. Tamas (inertia) to Rajas (action)
  4. Karma to Bhakti

Answer: C. Bhogi is the first day of Sankranti/Pongal. Old, unwanted items are burnt in a bonfire, symbolising shedding the past. As per the key, this represents moving from tamas (inertia, dullness) to rajas (energy, activity) as the harvest season and Uttarayana begin.

Q57 · Art & Culture

What is the symbolic significance of the breaking of bangles by hijras on the final day of the Koovagam festival?

  1. Mourning Aravan's death as widows
  2. Ending of their vow to Bahuchara Mata
  3. Beginning of monastic life
  4. A purification ritual

Answer: A. The Koovagam festival (Koothandavar temple, Villupuram, Tamil Nadu) is held in Chithirai. Transgender women (thirunangais) 'marry' Aravan , who in the Mahabharata was sacrificed after Krishna, as Mohini, married him. The next day they mourn his death as widows : they break bangles, remove their thalis and wear white.

Q58 · Art & Culture

How does Bihu music embody both the agrarian lifestyle and cultural identity of Assam through its thematic content and instrumentation?

  1. By focusing exclusively on religious rituals and using only classical instruments like the sitar and tabla
  2. By incorporating themes of fertility, love, and seasonal change in its lyrics, and using traditional instruments like the dhol and pepa that mimic natural sounds, thus reflecting the connection between agriculture, community life, and celebration
  3. By adopting Western musical scales and replacing indigenous instruments with electronic synthesizers
  4. By limiting performances to urban concert halls detached from rural festival contexts

Answer: B. Bihu songs (for Rongali Bihu in April) celebrate spring, the New Year, youth, love and fertility tied to the paddy cycle. They are played on the dhol, pepa (buffalo-horn pipe), gogona (jaw harp), taal, toka and flute, and are central to Assamese identity.

Q59 · Art & Culture

How do Barahmasa songs of Himachal Pradesh represent a unique convergence of seasonal cycles, emotional expression, and oral tradition, especially in the context of women's folk culture?

  1. By focusing on historical battles and political themes, unrelated to personal emotions or nature
  2. By serving as rigidly structured classical compositions based only on raga theory and temple rituals
  3. By narrating a woman's emotional states—longing, love, separation, and hope—through the symbolic lens of each month, these songs reflect both the natural rhythm of rural life and the intimate emotional world of women, passed down through oral tradition
  4. By being instrumental pieces performed only by male musicians at royal courts

Answer: C. Barahmasa ('twelve months') songs, from Himachal and other northern regions, describe a woman's feelings — longing, separation (viraha), love and hope — month by month, using the seasons as metaphors. They are passed down orally among women.

Q60 · Art & Culture

What is the common musical trait in Andhra-based Carnatic compositions that distinguishes them from Tamil counterparts?

  1. Predominant use of Sanskrit with rigid compositional formats
  2. Use of instrumental interludes and Western harmonies
  3. Predominant use of Telugu language, enhancing melodic fluidity and gamaka-rich expression
  4. Emphasis on secular themes over devotional content

Answer: C. The Andhra (Telugu) tradition gave Carnatic music Telugu-language compositions : Annamacharya's kirtanas, Kshetrayya's padams, Bhadrachala Ramadas, and Tyagaraja's kritis (in Telugu, though he lived in Tamil Nadu). Telugu's vowel endings suit gamaka-rich, flowing melody.

Q61 · Art & Culture

In what way does Burra Katha, as a musical storytelling tradition of Andhra Pradesh, serve as both a tool of entertainment and socio- political commentary, particularly during historical and reform movements?

  1. By focusing solely on mythological epics with no reference to contemporary issues
  2. By using rhythmic dance and puppetry to promote religious festivals
  3. By integrating satirical dialogue, folk melodies, and moral narratives that critique social injustices, promote reformist ideas, and engage audiences through interactive storytelling
  4. By restricting performances to royal courts and excluding common people from participation

Answer: C. Burra Katha (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana) is a narrative form. The main storyteller plays the tambura (burra, a gourd drum) and is accompanied by two co-artists (political satire and humour). It was widely used in the freedom movement and by the communist/Telangana movements for social and political messages, and later for public awareness.

Q62 · Polity & Governance

Which of the following statements best describes the legal status and constitutional challenges associated with the Right to Be Forgotten (RTBF) in India?

  1. The Right to Be Forgotten is explicitly recognized as a fundamental right under Article 21 by the Supreme Court, granting individuals absolute control to remove any personal information from the internet without restrictions.
  2. The Right to Be Forgotten is derived from the right to privacy under Article 21 and data protection principles, but it is not absolute and must be balanced against the freedom of speech and the public's right to information under Article 19(1)(a).
  3. Indian law currently provides a comprehensive statutory framework for RTBF through the Information Technology Act, 2000, which empowers individuals to demand erasure of any online content violating their privacy.
  4. RTBF applies only to government websites and databases, and private platforms are exempt from any obligation to remove personal data or information upon user request.

Answer: B. India has no explicit statute on the Right to Be Forgotten. Courts derive it from the right to privacy (Article 21, Puttaswamy 2017) . The DPDP Act 2023 gives a right to erasure of personal data. Courts decide RTBF claims case by case, balancing them against free speech (Art 19) and the public interest.

Q63 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Which of the following reflects a unique structural feature of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY) that differentiates it from other pension schemes for informal sector workers in India?

  1. It guarantees a monthly pension of 5,000 to all small and marginal farmers above 60, irrespective of their contribution history.
  2. It mandates a fixed pension corpus contribution by the farmer's children, and disburses benefits through Gram Panchayats.
  3. It operates as a contributory and voluntary pension scheme, where the Central Government matches the farmer’s monthly contribution, and enrollment is restricted to farmers owning less than 2 hectares of land aged 18-40 years.
  4. The scheme is administered under the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO), with pensions calculated based on the number of years of service and average land productivity.

Answer: C. PM Kisan Maan-Dhan (2019) is a voluntary, contributory pension scheme for small and marginal farmers aged 18–40. The farmer pays ₹55–200 a month depending on entry age, the Centre contributes an equal amount , and a pension of ₹3,000 a month is paid from age 60. LIC manages the fund.

Q64 · Geography

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the characteristics and climatic significance of the Doldrums (Intertropical Convergence Zone - ITCZ) and their impact on global weather patterns?

  1. The Doldrums are a permanent high-pressure zone near the poles characterized by descending cold air, resulting in clear skies and stable weather conditions.
  2. The Doldrums represent a low-pressure belt near the equator where trade winds from both hemispheres converge, causing frequent thunderstorms, variable winds, and influencing monsoon onset in South Asia.
  3. The Doldrums shift seasonally towards the poles following the sun’s zenith point but do not affect the formation of tropical cyclones or the distribution of rainfall in the tropics.
  4. The Doldrums are characterized by strong, persistent winds blowing consistently from east to west, facilitating historic transoceanic sailing routes.

Answer: B. The Doldrums (ITCZ) are an equatorial low-pressure belt where the NE and SE trade winds meet. They bring calm winds, rising air, convective clouds and frequent thunderstorms. The ITCZ shifts north and south with the sun, and its northward movement over India is tied to the monsoon trough.

Q65 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following statements about the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) is incorrect?

  1. JWST operates primarily in the infrared spectrum, enabling it to observe distant, redshifted galaxies and early universe phenomena.
  2. It is positioned at the Earth-Sun L2 Lagrange point, allowing stable thermal conditions and minimal Earth shadow interference.
  3. JWST features a segmented primary mirror made of beryllium coated with gold, which unfolds after launch to achieve its full aperture.
  4. Unlike the Hubble Space Telescope, JWST is designed for continuous optical wavelength observation with minimal infrared capability.

Answer: D. The James Webb Space Telescope (launched 25 December 2021) is an infrared observatory at the Sun–Earth L2 point, with an 18-segment gold-coated beryllium mirror (6.5 m) and a sunshield. Hubble observes mainly optical and UV. So calling JWST an 'optical-wavelength telescope with minimal infrared' is the incorrect statement.

Q66 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following accurately reflects the long-term strategic vision and technological challenges associated with India’s proposed Bharatiya Antariksh Station, and how it differs from existing international space stations?

  1. The Bharatiya Antariksh Station will be a joint India-Russia project focused on geostationary orbit operations, equipped for planetary defense.
  2. Unlike the International Space Station (ISS), the Bharatiya Antariksh Station will be modular, entirely domestically built, and operate in low Earth orbit for scientific research and long-duration crewed missions.
  3. The Bharatiya Antariksh Station will orbit the Moon to serve as a gateway for India’s future lunar mining and habitation missions.
  4. It is India’s first robotic Mars outpost, intended for autonomous sample return missions and artificial gravity experiments.

Answer: B. The Bharatiya Antariksh Station is planned as a modular, indigenously built Indian station in LEO (first module around 2028, complete by 2035). Unlike the multinational ISS (US, Russia, Europe, Japan, Canada), it will be India's own. Challenges include docking technology (tested by SpaDeX in 2025), life support and heavy launch capacity.

Q67 · Space, Science & Technology

What distinguishes the LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration) mission from previous lunar missions, and what are its strategic and scientific implications for future interplanetary exploration?

  1. LUPEX is a NASA-led mission aiming to launch a solar-powered telescope from the Moon's far side to observe deep-space galaxies, with challenges related to Earth visibility.
  2. LUPEX will deploy a rover near the lunar equator to conduct high-resolution mineral mapping using X-ray fluorescence technology, focused on past volcanic activity.
  3. LUPEX is a joint ISRO-JAXA mission targeting the lunar south pole to explore permanently shadowed regions for water ice, using a lander-rover system, contributing to potential crewed lunar bases and future Mars missions.
  4. LUPEX is India’s first space-based solar observatory placed in lunar orbit to measure electromagnetic interference from Earth's magnetosphere during eclipses.

Answer: C. LUPEX (Chandrayaan-5) is a joint ISRO–JAXA mission to the lunar south pole . JAXA provides the H3 rocket and the rover, and ISRO the lander. It will study water ice in permanently shadowed regions — vital for future human bases (in-situ resource use) — and is planned for around 2028.

Q68 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following statements accurately describes the core functionality, benefits, and potential risks associated with Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) in the context of cybersecurity and data privacy?

  1. VPNs create a direct physical connection between two networks using dedicated leased lines, ensuring complete immunity from cyberattacks without affecting internet speed or privacy concerns.
  2. VPNs establish encrypted tunnels over public networks to secure data transmission, enable remote access, and mask users’ IP addresses, but may pose risks such as data logging by VPN providers and vulnerabilities from weak encryption protocols.
  3. VPN technology primarily functions by replacing users’ original IP addresses with randomly generated IPs without encryption, mainly used to bypass geo-restrictions but offering no real privacy or security enhancements.
  4. VPNs use blockchain technology to decentralize data transmission, thereby eliminating the need for encryption and ensuring absolute anonymity on the internet.

Answer: B. A VPN creates an encrypted 'tunnel' over the public internet. It hides the user's IP address and traffic from networks and ISPs, and enables secure remote access. Risks: the VPN provider can itself log data, speeds drop, and there are legal limits. CERT-In (2022) requires VPN providers in India to keep user logs for 5 years.

Q69 · Space, Science & Technology

In what ways does ASTROSAT's multi-wavelength observation capability distinguish it from conventional space telescopes, and what scientific advantages does this offer for high-energy astrophysics and cosmology research?

  1. ASTROSAT focuses only on visible and infrared wavelengths to study Earth’s magnetosphere and atmospheric chemistry, unlike other telescopes that observe deep-space objects.
  2. ASTROSAT's design allows simultaneous observation of celestial sources in UV, optical, and X-ray bands, enabling real-time correlation of high-energy phenomena like black hole activity, X-ray binaries, and gamma-ray bursts.
  3. ASTROSAT is designed to detect gravitational waves in coordination with LIGO by using radio-frequency bursts and radar echo timing from pulsars.
  4. ASTROSAT's primary goal is to map exoplanets using Doppler spectroscopy from a Sun-synchronous polar orbit.

Answer: B. AstroSat (2015, PSLV-C30) is India's first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory. Its five payloads (UVIT, LAXPC, SXT, CZTI, SSM) observe UV, optical and X-ray bands at the same time, which is useful for black holes, neutron stars and galaxies. UVIT discovered extreme-UV light from a distant galaxy (AUDFs01).

Q70 · Economy

In the context of India’s trade and industrial policy in 2025, which of the following best explains the challenges posed by the Inverted Duty Structure (IDS) and the policy measures adopted to mitigate its adverse impact on domestic manufacturing?

  1. IDS occurs when the import duty on finished goods is lower than that on raw materials or intermediate goods, discouraging domestic value addition; to address this, the government has rationalized tariffs and promoted local sourcing under schemes like ‘Make in India’ and Production Linked Incentives (PLI)
  2. IDS refers to the situation where export duties exceed import duties, encouraging foreign competition at the expense of domestic industries
  3. IDS means that all goods have zero import duties, resulting in complete liberalization of the domestic market without any protective measures
  4. IDS is a pricing strategy used by Indian exporters to undercut global prices, with no relation to tariff structures

Answer: A. An inverted duty structure means the duty or GST on raw materials and inputs is higher than on the finished product , e.g. textiles and footwear. It makes imported final goods cheaper than domestic manufacture and blocks input tax credit. Fixes: rationalising customs tariffs (Budgets 2024–25), GST rate corrections, and refunds of accumulated credit.

Q71 · Physics

What principle underlies the working of transformers, electric generators, and inductive charging systems?

  1. Ohm's Law
  2. Joule’s Law
  3. Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic Induction
  4. Newton's Third Law

Answer: C. Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction (1831): a changing magnetic flux induces an emf in a conductor. It underlies transformers, generators (dynamos), induction cooktops and wireless (inductive) chargers . Lenz's law gives the direction of the induced current.

Q72 · Physics

A perfect blackbody in thermal equilibrium:

  1. Reflects all radiation and emits none.
  2. Emits radiation only in the infrared spectrum.
  3. Absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation and emits radiation characteristic of its temperature.
  4. Emits energy independent of its temperature.

Answer: C. A perfect blackbody absorbs all radiation falling on it, reflecting none. It emits radiation that depends only on its temperature: the Stefan–Boltzmann law (E ∝ T⁴) gives the total, and Wien's law gives the peak. Stars and the CMB are near-blackbody emitters.

Q73 · Economy

In the context of the 1991 economic reforms in India, which of the following most accurately describes the role played by multilateral institutions like the IMF and the World Bank?

  1. They provided unconditional aid to help India overcome its fiscal crisis.
  2. They enforced a structural adjustment program as a precondition for emergency financial assistance.
  3. They recommended protectionist trade policies and expansion of the public sector.
  4. They assisted India in nationalizing critical sectors and reducing interest rates.

Answer: B. The IMF and World Bank lent to India in 1991 on condition of a Structural Adjustment Programme : fiscal deficit reduction, devaluation, trade and industrial liberalisation, financial sector reform and privatisation. These were the 'conditionalities' behind the stabilisation plus the LPG reforms.

Q74 · Economy

Which of the following best reflects the ideological foundation of India’s Second Five Year Plan (1956-1961) and its long-term impact on industrial development?

  1. It focused primarily on agricultural development through capitalist farming, laying the foundation for Green Revolution
  2. It was guided by the Gandhian principles of village self-reliance, promoting cottage industries and decentralised planning.
  3. It adopted the Mahalanobis model, prioritising heavy industrialisation and capital goods, but inadvertently led to neglect of consumer goods and inefficiencies in public sector enterprises.
  4. It pursued liberalisation and trade openness to integrate India with global supply chains, especially in textiles and electronics.

Answer: C. The Second Plan (1956–61) followed the P.C. Mahalanobis model : heavy investment in basic and capital-goods industries by the public sector — Bhilai, Durgapur and Rourkela steel plants. It built an industrial base but neglected agriculture, consumer goods and employment, contributing to the food crisis of the mid-1960s.

Q75 · Economy

Which of the following best describes the Mahalanobis Model adopted during the Second Five Year Plan?

  1. Focused primarily on agriculture-led development
  2. Emphasized foreign capital-intensive growth in services
  3. Prioritized heavy industry and capital goods sector through state investment
  4. Promoted private sector dominance in consumer goods

Answer: C. The Mahalanobis model (a two-sector, later four-sector model) held that long-run growth needs a large share of investment in the capital-goods (heavy industry) sector , led by state investment. It was the basis of the Second Plan.

Q76 · Geography

Which region of India is the largest producer of bauxite?

  1. Gujarat
  2. Odisha
  3. Jharkhand
  4. Chhattisgarh

Answer: B. Odisha is India's largest bauxite producer (over 70%), with major deposits in the Panchpatmali hills (Koraput) and Niyamgiri. It is followed by Jharkhand, Gujarat, Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra. Bauxite is the ore of aluminium (NALCO, Angul/Damanjodi).

Q77 · Geography

India has a vast and varied mineral resource base. Among these, iron ore is one of the most significant minerals that contributes to the industrial development of the country. Which of the following iron ore belts is known for the highest concentration of high-grade hematite iron ore in India, and has played a major role in supporting the steel industry, especially the plants located in Jharkhand and Odisha?

  1. Bellary-Chitradurga Belt
  2. Maharashtra-Goa Belt
  3. Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur Belt
  4. Singhbhum Belt

Answer: D. The Singhbhum–Keonjhar–Bonai belt (Jharkhand–Odisha, the Barajamda/Noamundi and Gua areas) has India's richest high-grade haematite iron ore. It feeds Jamshedpur, Rourkela and Bokaro. Other belts: Durg–Bastar–Chandrapur (Bailadila), Bellary–Chitradurga–Hospet, and Goa (low grade, for export).

Q78 · Modern History

Which tribal freedom fighter from present-day Jharkhand led the Ulgulan movement in the 19th century against the exploitative practices of British landlords and is now celebrated as a national hero?

  1. Tantia Tope
  2. Birsa Munda
  3. Sidhu Murmu
  4. Kanhu Murmu

Answer: B. Birsa Munda (1875–1900) led the Ulgulan ('Great Tumult') against British rule, dikus (outsider landlords and moneylenders) and missionaries in the Chotanagpur area. He died in Ranchi jail. His birthday, 15 November, is observed as Janjatiya Gaurav Divas (since 2021). The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act (1908) followed his movement. Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu led the Santhal Hul (1855).

Q79 · Sports

Which National Games edition is remembered for the highest medal tally by Services Sports Control Board (SSCB), showcasing dominance in Indian sporting competitions?

  1. 2011 (Jharkhand)
  2. 2015 (Kerala)
  3. 2022 (Gujarat)
  4. 2001 (Punjab)

Answer: A / B. At the 36th National Games 2022 (Gujarat) , the Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) topped the medal table with 61 gold and 128 medals in total, a record showing of dominance. Services also topped the 37th Games in Goa (2023).

Q80 · Sports

Why was the year 1975 considered historic in the context of Indian field hockey?

  1. India qualified for first World Cup
  2. India hosted the Olympic qualifiers
  3. India won its only Hockey World Cup
  4. Indian women qualified for Olympics

Answer: C. India won the men's Hockey World Cup in 1975 at Kuala Lumpur , beating Pakistan 2–1 in the final (Ajit Pal Singh captain, Ashok Kumar scored the winner). It is India's only World Cup title. India had won bronze in 1971 and silver in 1973.

Q81 · Sports

Which Indian athlete’s Olympic medal was later upgraded due to another athlete’s disqualification for doping?

  1. Yogeshwar Dutt
  2. Leander Paes
  3. Gagan Narang
  4. Karnam Malleswari

Answer: A. Yogeshwar Dutt won bronze in 60 kg freestyle wrestling at London 2012 . In 2016, silver medallist Besik Kudukhov (Russia) retrospectively tested positive, so United World Wrestling moved to upgrade Dutt's medal to silver. Dutt publicly said the medal should stay with Kudukhov's family, as Kudukhov had died in 2013.

Q82 · Geography

The Indian monsoon is primarily responsible for seasonal rainfall in India. What is the main cause behind the reversal of wind direction during monsoon?

  1. Coriolis effect
  2. Differential heating of land and sea
  3. Young fold mountains
  4. Dissected rivers and valleys

Answer: B. Note — the answer key marks 'Young fold mountains', but the textbook answer is 'Differential heating of land and sea'. In summer the land (NW India) heats faster than the ocean, forming a low-pressure area that draws moist south-west winds from the Indian Ocean. In winter the land cools, pressure reverses, and the NE monsoon blows. The Himalayas do help by blocking cold Central Asian winds and trapping the monsoon, which is probably why the key chose them. Also relevant: ITCZ shift, the Tibetan plateau, jet streams, El Niño.

Q83 · Geography

India has a wide variety of soils, each with its own characteristics and crops suited for cultivation. Which type of soil is found extensively in Maharashtra and is ideal for cotton cultivation due to its moisture-retentive capacity?

  1. Alluvial Soil
  2. Red Soil
  3. Black Soil
  4. Laterite Soil

Answer: C. Black soil (regur) comes from Deccan Trap basalt and covers Maharashtra, Gujarat, MP and Telangana. It is rich in lime, iron, magnesium and potash (poor in N and P), and is clayey and moisture-retentive (it cracks when dry, 'self-ploughing'). It is ideal for cotton , hence 'black cotton soil'.

Q84 · Geography

India’s Median Age as per 2011 was around 24 years. What does this suggest about the population structure?

  1. Aging population
  2. Majority of population is elderly
  3. Young population dominates
  4. Negative population growth

Answer: C. A median age of about 24 (Census 2011) means half the population was younger than 24, so India's population was young : a large working-age and youth group, which is the ' demographic dividend '. The median age is now about 28–29, versus about 38–39 in China and 48–49 in Japan.

Q85 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

In 2024, India's rank improved significantly in the Logistics Performance Index (LPI). What specific reform contributed most to this jump?

  1. Introduction of the Drone Policy
  2. Expansion of e-commerce
  3. Implementation of PM Gati Shakti and Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP)
  4. Free trade agreements with ASEAN

Answer: C. India rose from 44th (2018) to 38th of 139 in the World Bank's Logistics Performance Index 2023 . The jump was credited to PM Gati Shakti (a multimodal infrastructure plan, 2021), the National Logistics Policy (2022) and ULIP (Unified Logistics Interface Platform), along with digitisation of ports and customs.

Q86 · Biology

Which hormone is most directly associated with the regulation of mood and emotional balance?

  1. Adrenaline
  2. Thyroxine
  3. Serotonin
  4. Oxytocin

Answer: C. Serotonin (5-HT) is a neurotransmitter and hormone derived from tryptophan. It regulates mood, sleep, appetite and emotional well-being, and low levels are linked to depression (SSRIs target it). Adrenaline drives fight-or-flight, thyroxine governs metabolism, and oxytocin governs bonding and labour.

Q87 · Economy

As per the Union Budget 2025-26, what is India’s fiscal deficit target (as % of GDP) for FY 2025-26?

  1. 2.50%
  2. 4.40%
  3. 6.50%
  4. 3.10%

Answer: B. The Union Budget 2025–26 set the fiscal deficit target at 4.4% of GDP , down from 4.8% revised estimates for 2024–25. That met the glide-path pledge of below 4.5% by FY26, before shifting to a debt-to-GDP anchor.

Q88 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

The main factors considered in the UN’s Happiness Index include all EXCEPT:

  1. GDP per capita
  2. Political stability
  3. Social support
  4. Healthy life expectancy

Answer: B. The World Happiness Report explains country scores with six factors: GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom to make life choices, generosity and perceptions of corruption . 'Political stability' is not one of them.

Q89 · Polity & Governance

Which section deals with the right to private defense in mob attack cases, as introduced in July 2024?

  1. Section 44, BNS
  2. Section 23, BNSS
  3. Section 103, IPC
  4. Section 20, BSA

Answer: A. BNS Sections 34–44 deal with the right of private defence (IPC 96–106). As per the key, Section 44 — which protects a person using private defence against a deadly assault even if an innocent person is put at risk — is the provision linked here to mob-attack situations.

Q90 · Modern History

Which 19th-century act legalized the remarriage of Hindu widows?

  1. Sati Regulation Act
  2. Hindu Widow’s Remarriage Act 1856
  3. Age of Consent Act 1891
  4. Caste Disabilities Removal Act

Answer: B. The Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856 (Act XV) was passed under Lord Canning after a campaign by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar . It legalised the remarriage of Hindu widows. The Age of Consent Act (1891) raised the age of consent to 12, and the Caste Disabilities Removal Act (1850) protected converts' inheritance rights.

Q91 · Art & Culture

The folk dance 'Lavani' is known for its:

  1. Battle re-enactments
  2. Romantic and social themes, fast tempo
  3. Religious fasts
  4. Classical format

Answer: B. Lavani is a Maharashtrian folk form performed by women in nine-yard sarees to the beat of the dholki . It is known for its fast tempo , powerful rhythm, and romantic, erotic and social-satirical themes. It was popular in the Peshwa period and in Tamasha theatre.

Q92 · Economy

Who was the Prime Minister during most of India's significant early Five Year Plans (1951-1964)?

  1. Morarji Desai
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Indira Gandhi
  4. Lal Bahadur Shastri

Answer: B. Jawaharlal Nehru was PM from 1947 until his death in 1964, spanning the First, Second and most of the Third Five Year Plans. He chaired the Planning Commission and championed the mixed economy, heavy industry and 'temples of modern India' (dams, steel plants, IITs).

Q93 · Polity & Governance

The Directive Principles of State Policy are inspired by the Constitution of:

  1. Canada
  2. France
  3. Germany
  4. Ireland

Answer: D. The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Articles 36–51) were borrowed from the Irish Constitution (which took them from Spain). So were the method of electing the President and the nomination of Rajya Sabha members.

Q94 · Polity & Governance

Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly in the year of 1946?

  1. B.R. Ambedkar
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Rajendra Prasad
  4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: C. Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President of the Constituent Assembly on 11 December 1946. Dr Sachchidananda Sinha was the temporary (oldest-member) President at the first sitting on 9 December 1946. H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari were Vice-Presidents, and Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee.

Q95 · Polity & Governance

Which Article provides for a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President?

  1. Article 64
  2. Article 68
  3. Article 71
  4. Article 74

Answer: D. Article 74 : a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister shall aid and advise the President. The President must act on that advice (made binding by the 42nd Amendment) but may send it back once for reconsideration (44th Amendment).

Q96 · Polity & Governance

The conduct of business of the Government of India comes under:

  1. Article 74
  2. Article 75
  3. Article 77
  4. Article 78

Answer: C. Article 77 : all executive action of the Government of India is taken in the name of the President, and the President makes rules (the Allocation and Transaction of Business Rules). Article 78 covers the PM's duty to inform the President.

Q97 · Environment & Ecology

Which country ranked as the most polluted in the World Air Quality Report 2025?

  1. Bangladesh
  2. China
  3. India
  4. Pakistan

Answer: D. IQAir's World Air Quality Report ranks countries by annual PM2.5. Chad topped the 2024 edition , followed by Bangladesh, Pakistan, the DRC and India. As per the key, Pakistan is the most polluted country in the 2025 edition.

Q98 · Economy

Under the 1991 Trade and Investment Policy reforms, dismantling the regime of quantitative restrictions on imports and reducing very high tariffs was a mechanism of:

  1. Nationalisation
  2. Privatisation
  3. Liberalisation
  4. Centralisation

Answer: C. Trade liberalisation in 1991 dismantled quantitative restrictions (import licences and quotas), cut peak customs tariffs from over 300% towards 50% and lower, and moved imports to the Open General Licence. It is part of Liberalisation (and supports globalisation).

Q99 · Art & Culture

Read the Statements carefully based on Manipuri dance and choose the correct option: 1. Kartal Cholom is performed using cymbals with dynamic movements. 2. Samkirtana is performed without musical instruments.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: A. Manipuri Sankirtana (UNESCO Intangible Heritage, 2013) is ritual singing, drumming and dancing in Vaishnavite temples. It uses the pung (drum) and kartal (cymbals) — Pung Cholom and Kartal Cholom are its energetic drum and cymbal dances. So statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 (no instruments) is wrong.

Q100 · International Organisations & Relations

Which facility in Iran is being developed by India to enhance trade with Central Asia?

  1. Bandar Abbas commercial wharf
  2. Chabahar Port transit facility
  3. Qeshm Island logistics centre
  4. Bushehr Port maritime terminal

Answer: B. Chabahar Port (Sistan-Baluchestan, Iran, on the Gulf of Oman) is being developed by India, with the Shahid Beheshti terminal run by IPGL under a 10-year contract (2024). It lets India reach Afghanistan and Central Asia bypassing Pakistan , and links to the INSTC.

12 Sep, Shift 2

Q51 · Books, Awards & Personalities

How does Vikram Seth’s A Suitable Boy combine traditional Indian narrative structures with Western literary form?

  1. Through a focus on religious scriptures
  2. By using the picaresque form set in mythological India
  3. Through a family saga model inspired by 19th-century realist novels
  4. By using poetry throughout the novel

Answer: C. A Suitable Boy (1993) by Vikram Seth is one of the longest single-volume novels in English. It follows four families in newly independent India (1951–52) as Mrs Rupa Mehra searches for a husband for her daughter Lata. Its form is the 19th-century realist family saga (Tolstoy, Austen, George Eliot), filled with Indian life. Seth also wrote 'The Golden Gate' (a novel in verse).

Q52 · Books, Awards & Personalities

In what way does Salman Rushdie’s Midnight's Children redefine post-colonial Indian literature?

  1. It adheres strictly to Western realist tradition.
  2. It uses magical realism to represent political and historical events.
  3. It avoids historical references to maintain neutrality.
  4. It criticizes British literature exclusively.

Answer: B. Midnight's Children (1981) by Salman Rushdie won the Booker Prize and later the 'Booker of Bookers' (1993) and 'Best of the Booker' (2008). Saleem Sinai, born at the stroke of midnight on 15 August 1947, has telepathic links to other 'midnight's children'. It uses magical realism to retell India's history from Partition to the Emergency.

Q53 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Why is Qurratulain Hyder’s Aag Ka Darya (River of Fire) considered a landmark in Indian literature?

  1. For its depiction of the Mughal Empire through magical realism
  2. For spanning over two millennia of Indian history to explore continuity and change
  3. For being the first feminist novel in Urdu
  4. For its translation into Sanskrit

Answer: B. Aag Ka Darya (1959) by Qurratulain Hyder (Urdu; Jnanpith 1989) spans more than 2,500 years , from the Mauryan age to post-Partition India and Pakistan, with recurring characters (Gautam, Champa, Kamal) across eras. It explores continuity, identity and the Partition, and is considered the greatest Urdu novel.

Q54 · Art & Culture

During which festival is the recitation of the "Akhand Path" (continuous reading of the Guru Granth Sahib) most prominently observed?

  1. Baisakhi
  2. Gurpurab
  3. Hola Mohalla
  4. Diwali (Sikh tradition)

Answer: B. An Akhand Path is an unbroken, roughly 48-hour reading of the Guru Granth Sahib by relays of readers. It is central to Gurpurabs (the Gurus' birth and martyrdom anniversaries, e.g. Guru Nanak Jayanti), ending on the day itself, and is also held for weddings and other occasions.

Q55 · Art & Culture

Which of the following aspects best distinguishes the Birha folk music tradition of Uttar Pradesh from other regional folk styles like Kajri and Chaiti?

  1. Its exclusive association with monsoon rituals and feminine voice traditions in the Bhojpuri belt
  2. Its thematic focus on divine love stories, especially those of Radha and Krishna
  3. Its role as a narrative expression of separation, struggle, and migration, especially among male laborers
  4. Its primary function in temple rituals and Sufi devotional gatherings, accompanied by harmonium and tabla

Answer: C. Birha is a folk song genre of eastern UP and Bihar (Bhojpuri region) sung by men, especially Ahirs (Yadavs). It began among migrant labourers and expresses separation (viraha), hardship and migration . Kajri is sung in the monsoon (Sawan), and Chaiti in the month of Chaitra.

Q56 · Art & Culture

In the traditional performance of Karagattam, how do the lyrics of the accompanying songs contribute to the ritualistic and performative depth of the dance?

  1. By focusing solely on romantic ballads detached from the religious context
  2. By incorporating devotional themes praising rain deities like Mariamman, reinforcing the dance's role in agrarian fertility rituals
  3. By following strict Carnatic compositional structures with minimal lyrical variation
  4. By emphasizing abstract philosophical concepts unrelated to everyday village life

Answer: B. Karagattam (Tamil Nadu) is danced balancing a decorated pot (karagam) on the head. It is performed in honour of Mariamman , the rain and fertility goddess, and the songs are devotional prayers for rain and a good harvest. It is accompanied by the naiyandi melam (nadaswaram and thavil).

Q57 · Art & Culture

How does Maand music of Rajasthan serve as a cultural bridge between folk traditions and classical Indian music, and what features distinguish it from purely folk or classical forms?

  1. By strictly following the rules of Hindustani classical music with no folk influences
  2. By incorporating folk narratives and emotions into structured melodic frameworks that borrow elements of classical ragas, thus blending spontaneity with discipline
  3. By focusing only on fast-paced dance tunes with minimal lyrical depth
  4. By using only percussion instruments and avoiding melodic instruments

Answer: B. Maand is a semi-classical Rajasthani singing style that grew in the royal courts. It carries folk themes (Dhola–Maru and other love stories, heroism) in a structured, raga-like melodic frame close to thumri and ghazal. 'Kesariya Balam' is the best-known Maand; Allah Jilai Bai and Gavri Bai were famous singers.

Q58 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following best characterizes the strategic advantages and technical challenges of space-based surveillance systems, particularly in the context of national security?

  1. They provide persistent global coverage and real-time tactical data without the need for ground-based infrastructure, but are limited by high latency and atmospheric attenuation
  2. They offer wide-area, day-night, and all-weather monitoring capabilities, but face limitations in coverage due to Earth's curvature and terrain masking.
  3. They enable high-resolution imagery, early warning, and missile tracking, but are vulnerable to anti-satellite (ASAT) weapons and require complex orbital coordination.
  4. They primarily rely on passive sonar and radio triangulation methods to detect ground targets, which reduces their utility in desert and mountainous environments.

Answer: C. Military satellites — imaging (EMISAT, RISAT, Cartosat), early warning, SIGINT, navigation (NavIC) — give surveillance, missile tracking and secure communications. Their weakness is ASAT weapons , jamming, cyber-attacks and debris. India showed ASAT capability with Mission Shakti (2019) and set up the Defence Space Agency.

Q59 · Space, Science & Technology

Which of the following statements about the Van Allen Radiation Belts is incorrect?

  1. The Van Allen belts are zones of charged particles trapped by Earth’s magnetic field, predominantly composed of protons and electrons
  2. The inner radiation belt lies closer to Earth and primarily contains high-energy protons, while the outer belt contains mostly electrons.
  3. The radiation intensity of the Van Allen belts poses no operational hazard to satellites or human spaceflight missions passing through them.
  4. Geomagnetic storms and solar activity can cause significant changes in the structure and intensity of the Van Allen belts.

Answer: C. The Van Allen belts (discovered 1958, Explorer 1) are two doughnut-shaped zones of charged particles trapped by Earth's magnetic field. The inner belt (about 1,000–6,000 km) is mostly protons, and the outer belt mostly electrons. They do endanger satellite electronics and astronauts, so 'poses no hazard' is the incorrect statement. Geomagnetic storms change their extent.

Q60 · Space, Science & Technology

Which key discovery made by NASA's MAVEN mission has significantly advanced our understanding of how Mars lost much of its atmosphere?

  1. Detection of liquid water beneath the Martian surface
  2. Measurement of the rate at which solar wind strips away Mars’ atmosphere
  3. Discovery of methane plumes indicating active geology
  4. Mapping of Martian polar ice caps’ seasonal changes

Answer: B. NASA's MAVEN (Mars Atmosphere and Volatile Evolution, 2014) measured how the solar wind strips ions from Mars's upper atmosphere , faster during solar storms. This explains how Mars lost most of its early atmosphere and water after its magnetic field faded. India's Mangalyaan arrived the same week in 2014.

Q61 · Space, Science & Technology

NASA's Dragonfly mission to Titan will primarily use which of the following capabilities to explore Titan’s surface and study its prebiotic chemistry?

  1. A rotorcraft lander capable of flying multiple locations to analyze surface composition
  2. A stationary rover equipped with a drill to collect deep ice core samples
  3. An orbiter with high-resolution radar to map Titan’s methane lakes
  4. A balloon that floats in Titan's atmosphere to study weather patterns

Answer: A. NASA's Dragonfly (launch planned 2028, arrival 2034) is a nuclear-powered rotorcraft (drone) lander that will fly between sites on Titan , Saturn's largest moon. It will study prebiotic organic chemistry in Titan's dense nitrogen atmosphere and methane lakes.

Q62 · Biology

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the principle, application, and limitations of DNA barcoding in biodiversity assessment and species identification?

  1. DNA barcoding uses the full genome of an organism to identify species with 100% accuracy, making it a superior method to all traditional taxonomic techniques for both plants and animals.
  2. DNA barcoding relies on sequencing a short, standardized region of the genome—such as the COI gene in animals or rbcL/matK in plants—to identify and classify species, but its effectiveness may be limited by lack of reference databases and low resolution in closely related species
  3. DNA barcoding is limited only to microbial species and uses protein-coding genes to distinguish between strains, and thus has little relevance in conservation biology or forest management.
  4. DNA barcoding eliminates the need for morphological or ecological data and is currently used as the sole identification tool in all global biodiversity conventions and trade regulations.

Answer: B. DNA barcoding identifies species using a short standard gene region : COI (mitochondrial) for animals, rbcL and matK (chloroplast) for plants, and ITS for fungi. It is fast and useful for cryptic species, but depends on reference libraries (BOLD) and cannot always separate closely related species.

Q63 · Chemistry

Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism and applications of vinegar is incorrect?

  1. Vinegar acts as a natural preservative primarily due to the antimicrobial action of acetic acid, which lowers the pH and disrupts bacterial cell membranes.
  2. The production of vinegar involves the fermentation of ethanol by Acetobacter species under aerobic conditions, resulting in the formation of acetic acid.
  3. Vinegar effectively removes mineral deposits (like limescale) because acetic acid reacts with calcium carbonate to form water, carbon dioxide, and soluble acetate salts
  4. The cleaning effectiveness of vinegar increases when mixed with baking soda due to the formation of a strong alkaline solution that breaks down grease and proteins.

Answer: D. Vinegar is 4–8% acetic acid , made by fermenting sugars first to ethanol (yeast) and then to acetic acid (Acetobacter). It preserves food through its low pH and dissolves limescale. Mixing it with baking soda neutralises both — the fizz is CO₂ plus sodium acetate and water — which reduces cleaning power, so that is the incorrect statement.

Q64 · Biology

Why do we feel refreshed after drinking ORS during dehydration?

  1. It supplies calories
  2. It stimulates nerves
  3. It restores electrolytes and water
  4. It increases oxygen flow

Answer: C. ORS (WHO formula: glucose, sodium chloride, potassium chloride, trisodium citrate) replaces water and electrolytes lost in diarrhoea and dehydration. Glucose helps sodium, and with it water, absorb through the intestine (sodium–glucose co-transport). It has saved millions of lives.

Q65 · Economy

During periods of excess liquidity in the banking system, what role does the reverse repo rate play in the RBI’s monetary policy operations, and what impact does it have on commercial banks?

  1. It encourages banks to borrow more from the RBI and lend to the public
  2. It allows the RBI to absorb surplus liquidity by offering an interest rate on funds parked by banks, thus discouraging excessive lending
  3. It forces banks to invest solely in foreign assets, reducing inflation risk
  4. It mandates that all banks maintain higher CRR, thereby tightening liquidity

Answer: B. The reverse repo rate is what the RBI pays banks for parking surplus funds with it. It is used to absorb excess liquidity . Since 2022 the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) has become the floor of the LAF corridor, with the repo rate as the policy rate and the MSF as the ceiling. Higher absorption rates discourage excess lending and curb inflation.

Q66 · Economy

In 2025, India witnesses a significant surge in remittances from Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and outbound profit repatriation by foreign companies. Which of the following best explains how these flows affect the relationship between Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross National Product (GNP)?

  1. GDP will increase and GNP will remain constant due to no change in domestic production
  2. GNP will exceed GDP as remittances (inflow) add to factor income from abroad, while repatriation (outflow) reduces GDP
  3. GDP will exceed GNP as net factor income from abroad is negative due to higher profit outflows than remittance inflows
  4. Both GDP and GNP will remain unaffected by external sector transactions

Answer: C. GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) . Workers' remittances are mostly counted as current transfers, while profit, dividend and interest outflows to foreign investors are factor payments. When factor outflows exceed factor inflows, NFIA is negative, so GDP > GNP . This is India's usual situation.

Q67 · Economy

What was the primary rationale behind introducing the Value Added Tax (VAT) system in India in the early 2000s, and how did it address the inefficiencies of the earlier sales tax regime?

  1. VAT was designed to increase tax rates and reduce state autonomy in taxation
  2. VAT replaced customs duties and allowed the Centre to collect direct taxes for states
  3. VAT introduced a multi-point taxation system that minimized the cascading effect of taxes and promoted input tax credit across the supply chain
  4. VAT ensured uniform pricing of agricultural produce and abolished excise duties

Answer: C. State VAT (from 1 April 2005, following Haryana in 2003) replaced the old cascading sales tax. Tax was collected at each stage only on the value added , with input tax credit , which cut 'tax on tax', improved compliance and set up the move to GST in 2017.

Q68 · Economy

Which of the following fiscal reforms post-1991 played the most crucial role in improving tax efficiency and expanding the tax base in India?

  1. Nationalization of banks
  2. Introduction of Value Added Tax (VAT) and later the Goods and Services Tax (GST)
  3. Increase in agricultural subsidies
  4. Abolition of wealth tax

Answer: B. Post-1991 tax reform moved from the cascading sales tax and excise to VAT (2005) and then GST (1 July 2017, 101st Amendment) . GST is a destination-based, multi-stage tax with a seamless input tax credit chain. It widened the tax base, formalised the economy and created a common national market.

Q69 · Economy

Which of the following correctly links the concept of “commanding heights of the economy” with India's planning model post- independence?

  1. It refers to state control over agriculture and consumer services to ensure equitable distribution.
  2. It highlights the emphasis on decentralised village economies advocated during the Seventh Plan.
  3. It indicates the state ownership of key sectors such as steel, coal, and infrastructure, seen as essential for national development and security.
  4. It denotes the prioritisation of foreign investment in high-value sectors through joint ventures.

Answer: C. ' Commanding heights ' (a phrase from Lenin, used by Nehru) meant state ownership and control of key sectors — steel, coal, heavy engineering, power, railways, defence, banking — as the base of planned development under the IPR 1956 and the Mahalanobis model.

Q70 · Economy

Which of the following statements best captures the economic rationale behind the pursuit of ‘self-reliance’ in India’s development strategy from 1947 to 1990, and its broader implications on trade and industrial policy?

  1. It aimed at complete economic isolation by banning all foreign trade and investment
  2. It sought to reduce dependence on foreign technology, capital, and imports by developing indigenous industrial capacity, thereby promoting economic sovereignty within a mixed economy framework
  3. It prioritized maximizing exports to achieve rapid growth through global integration
  4. It promoted full capital account convertibility and free-market policies from the outset

Answer: B. Self-reliance (Nehruvian swadeshi) meant building indigenous capacity in capital goods, technology and food, and reducing dependence on imports and foreign aid. Tools: import substitution, protection, licensing and public enterprises. It built the base but also brought inefficiency and slow growth.

Q71 · Economy

Which of the following best encapsulates the major objective of the Fifth Five Year Plan (1974-1979), and how did it signify a shift in India's development priorities compared to earlier plans?

  1. Focus on rapid industrialization through foreign direct investment and export promotion
  2. Emphasis on poverty alleviation (Garibi Hatao), social justice, and redistribution of wealth alongside economic growth
  3. Complete deregulation of the economy and reduction in state intervention
  4. Prioritization of heavy industries and capital goods production to build self-reliance

Answer: B. The Fifth Plan (1974–79) , drafted by D.P. Dhar, stressed 'Garibi Hatao' (poverty removal) and self-reliance , with the Minimum Needs Programme (1974) and the 20-Point Programme (1975). The Janata government ended it a year early (1978) and started the Rolling Plan.

Q72 · Sports

Which Indian has been awarded the most medals in Commonwealth Games history?

  1. Sushil Kumar
  2. Abhinav Bindra
  3. Jaspal Rana
  4. Vijender Singh

Answer: C. Shooter Jaspal Rana won 15 Commonwealth Games medals (9 gold) across 1994–2006, and is often cited as India's most decorated CWG athlete. Other high medal-winners include shooters Samaresh Jung ('Goldfinger', 2006) and Gagan Narang.

Q73 · Sports

What was the historical significance of India's men's bronze medal in hockey at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics?

  1. Ended 30-year drought
  2. First-ever medal for India in hockey
  3. First medal since 1980, after 41 years
  4. Medal due to disqualification of another team

Answer: C. India's men's hockey bronze at Tokyo 2020 (beating Germany 5–4, captain Manpreet Singh, goalkeeper P.R. Sreejesh) was its first Olympic hockey medal since the 1980 Moscow gold, after 41 years . India won bronze again at Paris 2024. India has 8 Olympic hockey golds (1928–56, 1964, 1980).

Q74 · Sports

In the context of Olympic medals, what key geopolitical event drastically altered the medal tally in the 1980 and 1984 Games?

  1. Boycott by Soviet Union and USA respectively
  2. Doping bans across African countries
  3. IOC exclusion of certain sports
  4. Merging of East and West Germany

Answer: A. The 1980 Moscow Olympics were boycotted by the USA and about 65 countries over the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan. In return, the USSR and 13 Eastern Bloc nations boycotted 1984 Los Angeles . This distorted the medal tables (India's hockey gold in 1980 came in a depleted field).

Q75 · Sports

Which Asian Games edition marked the first introduction of Chess as a medal sport?

  1. 1998 Bangkok
  2. 2002 Busan
  3. 2006 Doha
  4. 2010 Guangzhou

Answer: C. Chess first became an Asian Games medal sport at Doha 2006 . Koneru Humpy won gold in women's rapid, and India won team golds in mixed events. It returned at Guangzhou 2010 and Hangzhou 2022 (held 2023).

Q76 · Geography

Which of the following lakes is a saltwater lake and is also the largest inland saltwater lake in India?

  1. Dal Lake
  2. Wular Lake
  3. Chilika Lake
  4. Sambhar Lake

Answer: D. Sambhar Lake (Jaipur, Nagaur, Ajmer, Rajasthan) is India's largest inland saltwater lake . It is a Ramsar site (1990), a major salt source and a flamingo habitat. Chilika (Odisha) is the largest brackish-water coastal lagoon. Wular (J&K) is the largest freshwater lake, and Dal Lake is in Srinagar.

Q77 · Geography

The Peninsular rivers have a distinct seasonal flow pattern compared to the Himalayan rivers. Which of the following is a primary reason for their non-perennial nature?

  1. Their flow is controlled by dams
  2. They originate from melting glaciers
  3. They depend largely on monsoon rainfall
  4. They have large catchment areas

Answer: C. Peninsular rivers (Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri, Mahanadi) are rain-fed , depending on the monsoon . So they are seasonal or non-perennial , with low flow in the dry months. Himalayan rivers are perennial , fed by glaciers and snowmelt as well as rain. (The Kaveri gets both monsoons and so flows more evenly.)

Q78 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

According to the Global Gender Gap Index 2024, which of the following dimensions caused India to lag behind, despite improvements in educational attainment?

  1. Equal political representation
  2. Labor force participation and wage parity
  3. High female migration
  4. Low rural birth rates

Answer: B. In the WEF's Global Gender Gap Report 2024 , India ranked 129th of 146 (131st in 2025). It lagged most on Economic Participation & Opportunity — low female labour-force participation and wage and income gaps — and on political empowerment. Education parity is near complete. Iceland is 1st.

Q79 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

The Sustainable Development Report 2024 indicated that India is lagging on certain SDG targets. Which specific goals contributed most to this underperformance?

  1. SDG-3 and SDG-12: Health and Responsible Consumption
  2. SDG-7 and SDG-8: Clean Energy and Economic Growth
  3. SDG-2 and SDG-6: Zero Hunger and Clean Water
  4. SDG-1 and SDG-4: No Poverty and Quality Education

Answer: C. The Sustainable Development Report 2024 (UN SDSN) ranked India 109th of 167 . Major challenges remained in SDG 2 (Zero Hunger — malnutrition, stunting) , SDG 6 (Clean Water & Sanitation), and others like SDG 5, 9 and 11. NITI Aayog's SDG India Index tracks state progress.

Q80 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Despite India’s reforms in taxation and digital governance, the Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) ranking has been discontinued by the World Bank. What led to this decision?

  1. Lack of data on digital startups
  2. Disputes between BRICS countries
  3. Accusations of data manipulation involving certain countries
  4. Overlapping with IMF’s structural index

Answer: C. The World Bank discontinued Doing Business in September 2021 after an audit (WilmerHale) found data irregularities : pressure to alter rankings for China (DB2018) and Saudi Arabia, UAE and Azerbaijan (DB2020). India had risen from 142nd (2014) to 63rd (2020). It was replaced by the B-READY (Business Ready) report from 2024.

Q81 · International Organisations & Relations

The International Solar Alliance primarily brings together nations that:

  1. Have major fossil fuel reserves
  2. Receive heavy monsoon rainfall
  3. Experience consistent sunshine
  4. Have high wind energy potential

Answer: C. The ISA was originally meant for the 121 ' sunshine countries ' lying fully or partly between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn , which get plenty of sunlight. Since 2020 membership is open to all UN members. It has about 100+ members and its HQ is in Gurugram.

Q82 · International Organisations & Relations

Which of the following reflects India’s major support to the International Solar Alliance?

  1. Building nuclear plants abroad
  2. Establishing coal reserves in Africa
  3. Offering solar project funding and technical aid
  4. Exporting fossil fuels to member countries

Answer: C. India hosts the ISA Secretariat (Gurugram), gave land and initial funding, and extends Lines of Credit (about $2 billion) and technical training for solar projects in Africa and island states. It also promotes 'One Sun One World One Grid' (OSOWOG) and the Green Grids Initiative.

Q83 · Geography

In Tibet, which river is known as ‘Singi Khamban’ or the ‘Lion’s Mouth’?

  1. Indus
  2. Brahmaputra
  3. Ganga
  4. Sutlej

Answer: A. The Indus rises near Lake Mansarovar (Bokhar Chu glacier, Tibet), where it is called ' Singi Khamban ' (Lion's Mouth). The Brahmaputra is 'Tsangpo' in Tibet and the Sutlej is 'Langchen Khambab' (Elephant's Mouth). The Indus enters India in Ladakh and flows to the Arabian Sea through Pakistan.

Q84 · Geography

Lakes predominantly formed by the action of glaciers are typically found in which major geographical region of India?

  1. The Thar Desert
  2. The coastal plains
  3. The Himalayan region
  4. The Deccan Plateau

Answer: C. Glacial lakes — tarns (cirque lakes) and moraine-dammed lakes — form in the Himalayas , e.g. Gurudongmar and Tsomgo (Sikkim), Chandra Tal and Suraj Tal (HP), Roopkund, Hemkund. Such lakes also pose GLOF risks (South Lhonak lake, Sikkim, 2023).

Q85 · Economy

The high percentage of cultivators in rural India signifies which structural problem?

  1. Disguised unemployment
  2. Educational backwardness
  3. Urban migration
  4. Higher wages

Answer: A. Too many people working on small farms means the marginal productivity of many workers is zero . Removing them would not reduce output. This is disguised (hidden) unemployment , typical of Indian agriculture, which employs about 45% of the workforce but produces about 18% of GVA.

Q86 · Art & Culture

Which of the following instruments is most closely associated with the traditional playing of the Pakhawaj?

  1. Dhrupad vocal style
  2. Bansuri flute melody
  3. Sitar stringed music
  4. Sarod stringed melody

Answer: A. The pakhawaj (a barrel-shaped drum) is the traditional accompaniment of dhrupad singing and of Kathak and Odissi dance. In khayal music the tabla replaced it. Famous exponents: Kudau Singh, Nana Panse, Pt. Bhawani Shankar.

Q87 · Ancient History

Which civilization is called India’s “first urbanization” ?

  1. Maurya
  2. Indus Valley
  3. Gupta
  4. Vedic

Answer: B. The Indus Valley (Harappan) Civilisation (mature phase about 2600–1900 BCE) is India's first urbanisation , with planned cities like Harappa, Mohenjo-daro, Dholavira, Kalibangan, Lothal and Rakhigarhi. The second urbanisation took place in the Ganga valley in about the 6th century BCE (Mahajanapadas).

Q88 · Ancient History

The Vedic period is mostly associated with:

  1. Megalithic burials
  2. Aryans and composition of the Vedas
  3. Buddhist stupas
  4. Roman trade

Answer: B. The Vedic period (about 1500–600 BCE) is linked with the Indo-Aryans and the composition of the four Vedas — Rig, Sama, Yajur, Atharva — along with the Brahmanas, Aranyakas and Upanishads. The Early Vedic phase was pastoral (Sapta Sindhu), and the Later Vedic phase agrarian, with iron and the Ganga valley.

Q89 · Space, Science & Technology

What was the name of India’s first satellite, launched in 1975?

  1. Aryabhata
  2. Bhaskara
  3. Cartosat-1
  4. INSAT-1A

Answer: A. Aryabhata , India's first satellite, was built by ISRO and launched on 19 April 1975 by a Soviet Kosmos-3M rocket from Kapustin Yar. It was named after the 5th-century mathematician-astronomer. Rohini RS-1 (1980, SLV-3) was the first satellite launched by an Indian rocket.

Q90 · Environment & Ecology

Which Indian city had the cleanest air (lowest AQI) as per CPCB data in early 2025?

  1. Delhi
  2. Tirunelveli
  3. Ghaziabad
  4. Chandigarh

Answer: B. According to the answer key, Tirunelveli (Tamil Nadu) had the cleanest air (lowest AQI) in CPCB city data in early 2025. Smaller southern and north-eastern cities typically record the best AQI, while Byrnihat, Delhi and Ghaziabad are among the worst.

Q91 · Art & Culture

The Taj Mahal's perfect symmetry and marble inlay (pietra dura) was inspired by which two art traditions?

  1. Greek & Chinese
  2. Persian & Indian
  3. African & Byzantine
  4. French & Japanese

Answer: B. The Taj Mahal (Shah Jahan, 1632–53, Agra, architect Ustad Ahmad Lahauri) blends Persian (Timurid) elements — the charbagh garden, the double dome, the iwan — with Indian ones: chhatris, lotus finial, and Rajasthani (Makrana) marble. Its pietra dura (parchin kari) stone inlay was perfected under the Mughals.

Q92 · Art & Culture

The Vesara style in temple architecture, seen at Aihole and Pattadakal, is a synthesis of:

  1. Nagara (north) & Dravida (south)
  2. Mughal & Portuguese
  3. Rajput & Gothic
  4. Gothic & Indo-Greek

Answer: A. The Vesara (hybrid) style developed under the Chalukyas of Badami (Aihole, Pattadakal, Badami) and later the Hoysalas (Belur, Halebidu). It combines Nagara (northern, curvilinear shikhara) and Dravida (southern, pyramidal vimana) features. Pattadakal is a UNESCO site with temples in both styles.

Q93 · Geography

What is India’s estimated population as of July 2025?

  1. 1.36 billion
  2. 1.46 billion
  3. 1.56 billion
  4. 1.76 billion

Answer: B. The UN World Population Prospects and the UNFPA State of World Population 2025 estimated India's population at about 1.46 billion in 2025, the world's largest since overtaking China in April 2023. India's TFR has fallen to about 1.9–2.0, below replacement.

Q94 · Geography

Which state contributes the largest share to India’s incremental population growth (2025)?

  1. Kerala
  2. Tamil Nadu
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Himachal Pradesh

Answer: C. Uttar Pradesh , the most populous state with about 24 crore people and a TFR of about 2.4, adds the largest absolute number of people each year. It is followed by Bihar (the highest TFR, about 3) and Maharashtra. Southern states like Kerala and Tamil Nadu have below-replacement fertility.

Q95 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

As of July 2025, India's literacy rate (estimated) is closest to which of the following?

  1. 69%
  2. 73%
  3. 79%
  4. 85%

Answer: C. India's literacy rate was 74.04% in Census 2011 (male 82.1%, female 65.5%). Recent survey estimates (PLFS, NSO) put it at about 77–80% , so the key takes about 79% as the 2025 figure. Kerala is highest (about 94–96%) and Bihar lowest.

Q96 · Physics

What is the SI unit of force?

  1. Newton
  2. Joule
  3. Watt
  4. Pascal

Answer: A. The SI unit of force is the newton (N) : 1 N = 1 kg·m/s², the force needed to accelerate 1 kg by 1 m/s² (F = ma). The joule is energy/work, the watt is power, and the pascal is pressure (N/m²).

Q97 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Who is known as the father of the Indian nuclear programme?

  1. C.V. Raman
  2. Meghnad Saha
  3. Homi J. Bhabha
  4. Vikram Sarabhai

Answer: C. Dr Homi Jehangir Bhabha founded TIFR (1945) , the Atomic Energy Commission (1948) and AEET (Trombay), later renamed BARC. He designed India's three-stage nuclear programme built around thorium reserves. He died in an air crash in 1966. Vikram Sarabhai is the father of the Indian space programme.

Q98 · Economy

What was the main model adopted for Indian economic planning after Independence?

  1. Pure capitalism
  2. Mixed economy
  3. Pure socialism
  4. Laissez-faire

Answer: B. India adopted a mixed economy : public and private sectors coexist, with the state in the 'commanding heights' and planning (Five Year Plans), and the private sector in agriculture, consumer goods and trade. This was set out in the IPRs of 1948 and 1956.

Q99 · Space, Science & Technology

What CRISPR-Cas9 breakthrough was achieved by Indian scientists at IGIB in 2024?

  1. First test-tube baby
  2. Editing the sickle cell gene in an Indian patient
  3. Human cloning
  4. Inventing artificial blood

Answer: B. CSIR-IGIB scientists developed an indigenous CRISPR-Cas9 gene therapy for sickle cell anaemia (the 'BIRSA 101' project). It corrects the faulty β-globin gene in a patient's blood stem cells. The disease is common in tribal belts, and India aims to eliminate it by 2047.

Q100 · Sports

Which two categories mainly comprise field events?

  1. Running and walking
  2. Jumping and throwing
  3. Sprinting and hurdling
  4. Relay and marathon

Answer: B. Field events are the jumps (high jump, long jump, triple jump, pole vault) and the throws (shot put, discus, javelin, hammer). Track events are running, hurdles, relays and race walks. Combined events (decathlon, heptathlon) mix both.

15 Sep, Shift 1

Q51 · Medieval History

Which Bahmani Sultan was honored with the title "Second Aristotle" due to his intellectual and administrative abilities?

  1. Alauddin Bahman Shah
  2. Muhammad Shah II
  3. Firoz Shah Bahmani
  4. Mahmud Gawan

Answer: B. Muhammad Shah III Lashkari (1463–82) is often given the title, but many exam sources credit Muhammad Shah II (1378–97), a scholarly and peace-loving ruler, as the 'Second Aristotle' ( Aristotle-i-Sani ). He built schools and invited the Persian poet Hafiz. Mahmud Gawan was the great Bahmani minister.

Q52 · Medieval History

Which of the following statements correctly describes the historical and architectural significance of the Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque?

  1. Built by Iltutmish as a Shia mosque with Persian inscriptions
  2. Constructed by Alauddin Khalji using granite from South India
  3. Commissioned by Qutb-ud-din Aibak using materials from demolished Hindu and Jain temples
  4. Built by Balban as a tomb complex for Sufi saints near Ajmer

Answer: C. The Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque ('Might of Islam'), in the Qutb complex, Delhi, was begun by Qutb-ud-din Aibak (about 1193) as Delhi's first mosque. It used pillars and material from 27 demolished Hindu and Jain temples . Iltutmish and Alauddin Khalji later extended it (the Alai Darwaza, 1311). The Iron Pillar stands in its courtyard.

Q53 · Modern History

The Act of Settlement, 1781, was enacted to correct what major flaw of the Regulating Act?

  1. Lack of provision for a civil code
  2. Ambiguity regarding jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
  3. Absence of an executive authority
  4. Lack of control over military spending

Answer: B. The Regulating Act (1773) created a Supreme Court at Calcutta but left its jurisdiction vague relative to the Governor-General-in-Council, which caused conflicts (e.g. the Patna case, the Nanda Kumar case). The Act of Settlement (1781) clarified this, exempting the Governor-General's official acts and revenue matters from the court.

Q54 · Modern History

Which key principle was institutionalized by Pitt's India Act, 1784?

  1. Parliamentary sovereignty over India
  2. Separation of powers between judiciary and executive
  3. Dual control between Company and the British Government
  4. Grant of complete autonomy to Indian provinces

Answer: C. Pitt's India Act (1784) set up a Board of Control (representing the British Crown) to supervise the Company's civil, military and revenue affairs. The Court of Directors kept commercial functions. This created dual control , and Company territories were called 'British possessions in India' for the first time.

Q55 · Modern History

What was the most politically sensitive implication of the Charter Act of 1813?

  1. Recognition of Indian languages in administration
  2. Legal permission for Christian missionaries to operate in India
  3. End of monopoly on trade with China
  4. Full sovereignty granted to Indian princely states

Answer: B. The Charter Act of 1813 ended the Company's trade monopoly in India (except tea and trade with China). It allowed Christian missionaries to enter and preach, which was politically sensitive, and allocated ₹1 lakh a year for education — the first government education grant. The China trade monopoly ended in 1833.

Q56 · Modern History

Which of the following statements best describes the primary objective and constitutional impact of the 45th Amendment Act, 1980?

  1. It abolished the power of the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament.
  2. It extended the duration of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from five years to six years during the Emergency period.
  3. It extended the period of reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, as well as the reservation of special representation for Anglo-Indians, for an additional ten years beyond the original period.
  4. It inserted the Fundamental Right to Education into the Constitution, making education a justiciable right for all children

Answer: C. The 45th Amendment (1980) extended SC/ST reservation in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies (and Anglo-Indian nomination) by another 10 years, to 1990 (Article 334). Later amendments kept extending it; the 104th (2019) extended SC/ST reservation to 2030 and ended the Anglo-Indian seats.

Q57 · Modern History

Which Act marked the beginning of Indian participation in the highest executive councils of the Viceroy and Provincial Governors for the first time in British India?

  1. Indian Councils Act, 1861
  2. Indian Councils Act, 1892
  3. Untouchability
  4. Government of India Act, 1919

Answer: A. The Indian Councils Act, 1861 (Canning) allowed the Viceroy to nominate Indians as non-official members of his expanded legislative council. The Raja of Benares, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao were nominated in 1862. It also gave legislative power back to Bombay and Madras and introduced the portfolio system.

Q58 · Polity & Governance

Which of the following practices is specifically prohibited by Article 23 of the Indian Constitution as a violation of fundamental rights?

  1. Child labour in hazardous industries
  2. Begar and human trafficking
  3. Directive Principles of State Policy
  4. Preventive detention without trial

Answer: B. Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced unpaid labour) and other forced labour . It is enforced through laws like the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act 1976. Article 24 bans child labour under 14 in factories, mines and hazardous work.

Q59 · Polity & Governance

Which of the following Bills, if presented to the President, can be subjected only to an absolute veto (i.e., complete refusal of assent) and not to a suspensive veto?

  1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses by the required majority
  2. A Private-Member Bill that has lapsed owing to the dissolution of the Lok Sabha but is re-introduced and passed again by the new Parliament
  3. A Money Bill passed by both Houses and certified by the Speaker
  4. A State Bill reserved by a Governor for the President's consideration, dealing with compulsory acquisition of property without compensation

Answer: C / D. The President has an absolute veto (withholding assent outright) over private members' bills , over government bills when the cabinet changes before assent, and over state bills reserved by the Governor (Art 201). For state bills — e.g. those on compulsory acquisition of property that need Presidential assent — the President may simply withhold assent. For Money Bills the President cannot return the bill (no suspensive veto), but may assent or withhold.

Q60 · Polity & Governance

Which of the following powers of the Supreme Court best exemplifies its role as the "Guardian of the Constitution"?

  1. Power to appoint the Chief Justice of India and other judges of the High Courts.
  2. Power to review its own judgments and orders under Article 137.
  3. Power to declare laws unconstitutional and strike them down through judicial review.
  4. Power to grant anticipatory bail to accused persons.

Answer: C. The Supreme Court is the ' guardian of the Constitution ' mainly through judicial review (Articles 13, 32, 131–136): striking down laws and executive actions that violate the Constitution or Fundamental Rights, within the limits of the basic structure doctrine.

Q61 · Polity & Governance

In which of the following circumstances can the President effectively exercise a pocket veto (i.e., take no action indefinitely) under Article 111?

  1. A Money Bill certified by the Speaker
  2. A Constitutional Amendment Bill amending fundamental rights
  3. An Ordinary Bill that the President has already once returned and the Houses have re-passed without amendment
  4. An Ordinary Bill originating in the Rajya Sabha that has lapsed owing to the dissolution of the Lok Sabha

Answer: C. The pocket veto exists because the Constitution sets no time limit for the President to act on an ordinary bill (unlike the US 10-day rule). Zail Singh used it on the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill, 1986 . No pocket veto applies to Money Bills or Constitutional Amendment Bills (assent is mandatory under the 24th Amendment). The key's option relies on this absence of a time limit even after re-passage, although Article 111 obliges assent once the bill is re-passed.

Q62 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Which of the following authors won the Sahitya Akademi Award in Hindi and later the Jnanpith Award, and is known for novels like Rag Darbari?

  1. Nirmal Verma
  2. Phanishwar Nath Renu
  3. Shrilal Shukla
  4. Krishna Sobti

Answer: C. Shrilal Shukla wrote ' Raag Darbari ' (Sahitya Akademi 1969), a satire on rural politics and bureaucracy in post-independence UP (the village of Shivpalganj). He received the Jnanpith in 2011 (shared with Amarkant) and the Padma Bhushan.

Q63 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Which of the following books by an Indian author was shortlisted for the Booker Prize in 2021, featuring a dystopian feminist allegory?

  1. The Ministry of Utmost Happiness by Arundhati Roy
  2. Tomb of Sand by Geetanjali Shree
  3. The White Tiger by Aravind Adiga
  4. Burnt Sugar by Avni Doshi

Answer: D. Burnt Sugar ('Girl in White Cotton' in India) by Avni Doshi was shortlisted for the Booker Prize 2020 (announced in the 2020 cycle; the key says 2021). It explores a toxic mother–daughter relationship and memory in Pune. Tomb of Sand won the International Booker in 2022.

Q64 · Environment & Ecology

Which of the following statements best describes the mandate and global relevance of the Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG), particularly in the context of international conservation frameworks?

  1. ISSG is an autonomous UN agency under UNEP that coordinates global funding and eradication efforts for invasive species in tropical forests, especially under the REDD+ mechanism.
  2. ISSG is a scientific network under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) that provides expertise on invasive species, maintains the Global Invasive Species Database, and supports the implementation of the Convention on Biological Diversity’s Aichi Targets and Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
  3. ISSG is a non-governmental body under the Ramsar Convention responsible for monitoring aquatic invasive species exclusively in wetlands of international importance.
  4. ISSG is a subsidiary body of the FAO that focuses on genetically modified invasive crops and their regulation under the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety.

Answer: B. The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is part of the IUCN Species Survival Commission . It is a global scientific network that maintains the Global Invasive Species Database and the list of '100 of the World's Worst Invasive Alien Species' (e.g. Lantana, water hyacinth), and advises the CBD.

Q65 · Geography

Which of the following statements best explains the process of soilfluction, its geographic occurrence, and its geomorphic implications, particularly in periglacial and high-latitude environments?

  1. Soilfluction is a type of chemical weathering in tropical regions where downward movement of clay minerals occurs due to intense leaching under high rainfall.
  2. Soilfluction refers to the slow, gravity-driven movement of water-saturated regolith over impermeable permafrost layers in periglacial regions, forming lobate structures and contributing to solifluction terraces on gentle slopes.
  3. Soilfluction is the rapid downslope movement of rock and debris caused by seismic shaking in arid mountainous regions, typically resulting in talus cones and debris aprons.
  4. Soilfluction occurs exclusively in volcanic terrains where lava alters soil cohesion, triggering landslides with high speed and deep incision.

Answer: B. Solifluction (soil-flow) is the slow downslope flow of water-saturated soil over frozen ground. In summer the active layer thaws, but the permafrost below stays impermeable, so meltwater cannot drain and the saturated soil creeps. It is typical of periglacial, tundra and high-altitude areas and forms solifluction lobes and terraces.

Q66 · Art & Culture

Rukmini Devi Arundale is remembered for reviving which traditional Indian art form and integrating it into modern education?

  1. Kathak
  2. Bharatanatyam
  3. Manipuri
  4. Odissi

Answer: B. Rukmini Devi Arundale (1904–86) freed Bharatanatyam from social stigma as the devadasi 'sadir'. She founded Kalakshetra (Chennai, 1936) for formal teaching, reformed costumes and repertoire, and became the first woman nominated to the Rajya Sabha (1952). She also championed animal welfare.

Q67 · Sports

Which symbolic feature was introduced in the 2022 National Games Torch Relay for the first time in Indian sporting history?

  1. Drone-borne flame transportation
  2. Inclusion of traditional folk athletes
  3. Torch lighting by national para-athletes
  4. Torch covering all 75 districts of Gujarat

Answer: D. For the 36th National Games (2022, Gujarat) , the torch relay was described as symbolically covering all districts of Gujarat , linked to the '75' of Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav. The Games were held in six cities, including Ahmedabad, Gandhinagar and Surat.

Q68 · Sports

The 2023 National Games, held in Goa, introduced water sports as a competitive category. What was the rationale behind this inclusion in context to Goa’s geography and economy?

  1. Promotion of adventure tourism and leveraging coastal identity
  2. Support to fishing communities through government quotas
  3. Encouragement of flood-control innovations
  4. Preparation for Olympics 2032 bids

Answer: A. The 37th National Games (2023, Goa) used Goa's coastline and rivers for water sports and beach events — rowing, canoeing, sailing, beach volleyball, kitesurfing — to promote adventure and sports tourism and highlight Goa's coastal identity. Services topped the table.

Q69 · Sports

In which year did the National Games officially replace the All India Olympic Games, and why was this transition important?

  1. 1924 - To align with the International Olympic Charter
  2. 1934 - To form an independent Indian Olympic Association
  3. 1948 - To commemorate India’s Olympic debut
  4. 1951 - To mark the Asian Games in Delhi

Answer: B. The first ' Indian Olympic Games ' were held in Lahore in 1924. The Indian Olympic Association was formed in 1927 , and the event was later renamed the National Games (many sources date the renaming to 1940, Bombay). The key gives 1934, linking the change to building a national Olympic structure.

Q70 · Sports

In Commonwealth Games, which rare occurrence led to medal redistribution in women’s relay team in 2010 Delhi Games?

  1. Tie in finish line
  2. Baton exchange outside zone
  3. Doping disqualification of medal-winning team
  4. Protest from host nation

Answer: C. At the 2010 Delhi CWG , Nigeria's women's 4×100 m relay team was stripped of its silver after Osayemi Oludamola failed a dope test. The medals moved up, and India's quartet received bronze .

Q71 · Sports

Why was Russia banned from the 2020 and 2022 Olympics under the neutral flag status?

  1. Government-level cyber attacks
  2. Political asylum of top athletes
  3. State-sponsored doping scandal
  4. Violation of international sports funding rules

Answer: C. After the McLaren Report (2016) found state-sponsored doping (including sample-swapping at Sochi 2014), WADA and CAS banned Russia. Its athletes competed as 'ROC' at Tokyo 2020 and Beijing 2022 without the flag or anthem. After the Ukraine invasion, Russians competed as Individual Neutral Athletes at Paris 2024.

Q72 · Geography

The Eastern and Western Ghats influence India’s topography and rainfall patterns. Which of the following is a key difference between the two ranges?

  1. Eastern Ghats are continuous, Western Ghats are discontinuous
  2. Eastern Ghats lie parallel to the Arabian Sea coast
  3. Western Ghats are higher in elevation and more continuous than Eastern Ghats
  4. Western Ghats have more mineral wealth

Answer: C. The Western Ghats (Sahyadri) are higher and continuous (average about 900–1,600 m; Anamudi 2,695 m is the peak) and parallel to the Arabian Sea. They are a UNESCO site and biodiversity hotspot, and cause heavy orographic rain. The Eastern Ghats are lower, discontinuous and broken by rivers (Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri); Jindhagada/Arma Konda is the highest point.

Q73 · Geography

Which of the following rivers forms the largest delta in the world before entering the Bay of Bengal?

  1. Mahanadi
  2. Godavari
  3. Krishna
  4. Ganga-Brahmaputra

Answer: D. The Ganga–Brahmaputra (Sundarbans) delta in India and Bangladesh is the world's largest delta (about 1 lakh sq km). It hosts the Sundarbans mangroves (a UNESCO site and Royal Bengal tiger habitat). It is a 'growing' delta that pushes seaward.

Q74 · Environment & Ecology

India’s consistent rise in the Global Climate Risk Index signifies what major challenge in its environmental and disaster management system?

  1. Absence of green zones in cities
  2. Low carbon emission from agriculture
  3. Frequent climate-related disasters like floods and heatwaves, and vulnerability due to population density
  4. Overuse of electric vehicles

Answer: C. Germanwatch's Climate Risk Index (CRI 2025, covering 1993–2022) ranked India 6th most affected , reflecting frequent floods, heatwaves, cyclones and droughts with high human and economic losses, and vulnerability driven by population density and poverty. Adaptation measures include Heat Action Plans and NDMA plans.

Q75 · Environment & Ecology

In the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) 2024, India ranked near the bottom globally. What is the primary reason for such a low rating despite ongoing environmental programs like National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)?

  1. Under-reporting of pollution levels
  2. Lack of carbon pricing
  3. Delayed implementation of emission control laws and poor waste management systems
  4. High solar energy subsidies

Answer: C. The Yale/Columbia Environmental Performance Index 2024 ranked India 176th of 180 . It scores poorly on air quality, biodiversity, waste management and GHG trajectories. Critics, including the government, dispute the methodology (e.g. weighting of per-capita emissions). Estonia ranked 1st.

Q76 · Environment & Ecology

The AQI of Delhi during winter often exceeds 400. What is the primary scientific and policy-based reason for such critical levels?

  1. Lack of monsoon showers
  2. Concentrated rural energy use
  3. Thermal inversion and transboundary stubble burning from Punjab and Haryana
  4. Industrial shutdowns during festivals

Answer: C. In winter, a temperature inversion (cold air trapped under warmer air) and calm winds stop pollutants from dispersing over Delhi. Stubble burning in Punjab and Haryana (October–November) adds a lot to PM2.5, along with vehicles, dust, industry and firecrackers. The GRAP stages and the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) respond.

Q77 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Which scheme provides free LPG connections to women from poor households in India?

  1. Saubhagya Yojana
  2. PM Garib Kalyan
  3. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
  4. Aayushman Bharat

Answer: C. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was launched on 1 May 2016 in Ballia, UP. It gives free LPG connections to adult women of BPL/poor households ; over 10 crore connections have been given, with Ujjwala 2.0 from 2021. Saubhagya (2017) is for household electricity connections.

Q78 · Ancient History

Evaluate the following statements related to the Gupta period: Statement 1: The Gupta period witnessed a revival of Brahmanical traditions and Sanskrit literature. Statement 2: The Guptas issued only copper coins with Prakrit inscriptions. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: A. The Gupta age (about 320–550 CE) saw a Brahmanical revival and flourishing Sanskrit literature (Kalidasa, Aryabhata), so statement 1 is correct. The Guptas issued the most gold coins (dinaras) of ancient India, with Sanskrit legends, so statement 2 is wrong.

Q79 · Geography

Which Indian state is the leading producer of iron ore in India, particularly known for its rich deposits of high-grade hematite?

  1. Karnataka
  2. Chhattisgarh
  3. Odisha
  4. Jharkhand

Answer: C. Odisha is India's largest iron ore producer (over 50%, from Keonjhar, Sundargarh and Mayurbhanj haematite deposits). It is followed by Chhattisgarh (Bailadila), Karnataka (Bellary–Hospet) and Jharkhand.

Q80 · Medieval History

Mahmud of Ghazni's numerous raids into the Indian subcontinent were primarily driven by which objective?

  1. Trade Expansion
  2. Territorial Conquest
  3. Economic plunder
  4. Religious Zeal

Answer: C. Mahmud of Ghazni made about 17 raids (1000–1027 CE), sacking wealthy temples and cities — Nagarkot, Thanesar, Mathura, Kannauj and Somnath (1025) — mainly for wealth to fund his Central Asian empire. He did not set up lasting rule beyond Punjab. Al-Biruni came with him and wrote 'Kitab-ul-Hind'.

Q81 · Art & Culture

Which of the following statements about Melakarta Ragas in Carnatic music is/are correct? Statement 1: There are 72 Melakarta ragas, which are parent scales. Statement 2: All Melakarta ragas are derived from Janya ragas.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: A. There are 72 melakarta (parent) ragas , each using all seven swaras in ascending and descending order, so statement 1 is correct. Janya ragas are derived from melakartas , not the other way round, so statement 2 is wrong.

Q82 · Art & Culture

The Ajanta caves, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, were primarily excavated during the reign of which dynasty?

  1. Mauryan
  2. Gupta and Vakataka
  3. Kushan
  4. Nanda

Answer: B. The Ajanta caves (Aurangabad, Maharashtra) are 30 rock-cut Buddhist caves. The early phase (2nd–1st century BCE) was under the Satavahanas, and the main phase (about 5th century CE) under the Vakatakas (Harishena), contemporaries of the Guptas. They hold the finest surviving ancient Indian murals.

Q83 · Geography

What is the main focus of economic geography?

  1. Study of weather
  2. Distribution of economic activities and resources
  3. Mapping only physical features
  4. Tourism development

Answer: B. Economic geography studies the spatial distribution of economic activities — primary, secondary, tertiary — along with resources, industries, trade and transport, and why they locate where they do.

Q84 · Geography

Which is the most important river basin for agriculture in northern India?

  1. Narmada
  2. Ganga
  3. Krishna
  4. Tapi

Answer: B. The Ganga basin is India's largest (about 26% of the country's area). Its fertile alluvial plains in UP, Bihar, West Bengal, Uttarakhand and Haryana are the backbone of north Indian farming (wheat, rice, sugarcane) and support about 40% of the population.

Q85 · Geography

As per 2025 demographics, what is India’s population density (people per sq. km)?

  1. 144
  2. 292
  3. 492
  4. 1275

Answer: C. Census 2011 put India's density at 382 per sq km . With about 1.46 billion people in 2025, estimated density is roughly 440–490 per sq km depending on the land area used; the key takes 492 . Bihar is the densest state (1,106 in 2011), and Arunachal Pradesh the sparsest (17).

Q86 · Geography

As per projections, which region’s share of overall Indian population is set to decrease in 2025 and beyond?

  1. Northern
  2. Western
  3. Southern
  4. Eastern

Answer: C. Southern states (Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana) went below replacement fertility early. So their share of India's population will keep falling , while northern states like UP, Bihar, MP and Rajasthan grow faster. This matters for the delimitation debate.

Q87 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Who, as of July 2025, is India’s Minister of External Affairs?

  1. S. Jaishankar
  2. Amit Shah
  3. Piyush Goyal
  4. Smriti Irani

Answer: A. Dr S. Jaishankar , a former Foreign Secretary, has been External Affairs Minister since May 2019 and continued in Modi 3.0 (June 2024). Amit Shah holds Home and Cooperation, and Piyush Goyal holds Commerce.

Q88 · Books, Awards & Personalities

What is the significance of the Saraswati Samman, and who won it for a Marathi novel in 2020?

  1. Private award for Indian literature, Sharankumar Limbale
  2. Lifetime award for poetry, Damodar Mauzo
  3. Highest award for English fiction, Jhumpa Lahiri
  4. For translation only, Daisy Rockwell

Answer: A. The Saraswati Samman (from 1991) is a private award by the K.K. Birla Foundation for an outstanding literary work in any of the 22 Eighth Schedule languages, worth ₹15 lakh. The 2020 award went to Sharankumar Limbale for his Marathi novel 'Sanatan' . The first winner was Harivansh Rai Bachchan.

Q89 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Who has been appointed as the new Chief of the Naval Staff in May 2026?

  1. Admiral Dinesh Kumar Tripathi
  2. Admiral Sunil Lanba
  3. Vice Admiral Karambir Singh
  4. Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan

Answer: D. As per the answer key, Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan was named the next Chief of the Naval Staff in May 2026 , succeeding Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi. The Navy chief is appointed by the ACC and the President is the Supreme Commander.

Q90 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Who has been appointed as the Chairperson of the Central Board of Film Certification in May 2026?

  1. Anurag Singh Thakur
  2. Prasoon Joshi
  3. Rajesh Kumar Singh
  4. Shashi Shekhar Vempati

Answer: D. As per the answer key, Shashi Shekhar Vempati (former Prasar Bharati CEO) became Chairperson of the CBFC (Central Board of Film Certification) in May 2026, succeeding Prasoon Joshi. The CBFC works under the Ministry of I&B under the Cinematograph Act 1952.

Q91 · Sports

What is the width of the take-off board in long jump?

  1. 10cm
  2. 15cm
  3. 20 cm
  4. 25cm

Answer: C. The long jump take-off board is 20 cm wide , set flush with the runway. A jump is a foul if the toe crosses the far edge (the foul line, often marked with plasticine). Distance is measured from that edge to the nearest mark in the sand pit.

Q92 · Sports

High jump requires athletes to take off from:

  1. Both feet
  2. One foot
  3. Knees
  4. Hands

Answer: B. In the high jump the athlete must take off from one foot (a two-foot take-off is a foul). The modern technique is the Fosbury Flop (1968). Tejaswin Shankar and Sarvesh Kushare are leading Indian high jumpers.

Q93 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

How many days of wage employment are guaranteed under the Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025?

  1. 100 days
  2. 110 days
  3. 125 days
  4. 150 days

Answer: C. As per the key, the Viksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025 (VB–G RAM G) replaced MGNREGA. It raised the statutory guarantee of rural wage employment from 100 to 125 days per household per year.

Q94 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Who notifies wage rates under the Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025?

  1. State Government
  2. Gram Panchayat
  3. Central Government
  4. District Officer

Answer: C. As per the key, under the new VB–G RAM G Act the Central Government notifies the wage rates for workers. (Under MGNREGA also, the Centre notified state-wise wage rates under Section 6.)

Q95 · International Organisations & Relations

Which of the following states is considered a 'Littoral State’ of the Indian Ocean?

  1. Republic of the Kazakhstan land
  2. Republic of the Mauritius area
  3. Republic of the Mongolia zone
  4. Republic of the Switzerland hub

Answer: B. Littoral states border the sea. Mauritius is an Indian Ocean island state and a key Indian partner (the Agaléga project, SAGAR vision). Kazakhstan, Mongolia and Switzerland are landlocked.

Q96 · Polity & Governance

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. Admission defined — Section 15
  2. Burden of proof — Section 118
  3. Electronic records — Section 67
  4. Previous judgments — Section 39

Answer: A. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 , Section 15 defines ' admission ' (formerly Section 17 of the Evidence Act). Other correct placements: burden of proof starts at Section 104; electronic records at Sections 61–63 (admissibility, with a certificate under Section 63); relevance of previous judgments at Sections 34–38.

Q97 · Polity & Governance

Under the Constitution of India, which Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) serves as the foundational basis for the advocacy of a Uniform Civil Code?

  1. Article 40
  2. Article 44
  3. Article 51
  4. Article 25

Answer: B. Article 44 (Part IV): 'The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.' It is the constitutional basis for UCC advocacy. Article 40 covers village panchayats, Article 51 international peace, and Article 25 (a Fundamental Right) freedom of religion.

Q98 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Which of the following personalities is primarily known as a social reformer?

  1. Baba Amte
  2. Kapil Dev
  3. C.V. Raman
  4. Viswanathan Anand

Answer: A. Baba Amte (Murlidhar Devidas Amte) was a Gandhian social worker . He rehabilitated leprosy patients at Anandwan (Warora, Maharashtra) and joined the Narmada Bachao Andolan. He received the Ramon Magsaysay Award (1985), the Gandhi Peace Prize and the Padma Vibhushan.

Q99 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Which Malayalam film actor was honored with the Padma Bhushan in 2026?

  1. Mohanlal
  2. Mammootty
  3. Sreenivasan
  4. Dulquer Salmaan

Answer: B. As per the answer key, Malayalam superstar Mammootty received the Padma Bhushan in 2026 . He earlier received the Padma Shri (1998) and three National Awards for Best Actor. Mohanlal received the Dadasaheb Phalke Award (2023, conferred in 2025).

Q100 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Which woman cricketer was honored with the Padma Shri 2026 award?

  1. Harmanpreet Kaur
  2. Smriti Mandhana
  3. Mithali Raj
  4. Jhulan Goswami

Answer: A. As per the answer key, Harmanpreet Kaur — captain of India's first-ever ICC Women's World Cup-winning team (2025) — received the Padma Shri in 2026 .

15 Sep, Shift 2

Q51 · Modern History

The primary objective of the Act of Settlement, 1781, was to rectify which critical flaw in the judicial structure established by the Regulating Act of 1773?

  1. The lack of a centralized revenue administration system in Bengal Presidency
  2. The ambiguous jurisdiction of the Supreme Court over the Company’s servants and native population
  3. The absence of appellate jurisdiction for the Sadar Diwani Adalat
  4. The exclusion of Indians from the Executive Council of the Governor-General

Answer: B. The Act of Settlement (Amending Act) 1781 fixed the jurisdictional confusion the Regulating Act had created between the Calcutta Supreme Court and the Governor-General-in-Council. Company servants' official acts and revenue matters were excluded from the court, and it was told to respect the personal laws of Indians.

Q52 · Modern History

What was the fundamental flaw in the Mahalwari system that led to peasant distress?

  1. Revenue was based on annual auctions
  2. Revenue was fixed permanently with no flexibility
  3. Revenue demand was periodically revised upward, burdening the whole village collectively
  4. It granted collective ownership of land to European planters

Answer: C. The Mahalwari system was framed by Holt Mackenzie in 1822 and revised by Bentinck and Robert Merttins Bird in 1833. It covered NW Provinces, Punjab and parts of Central India. Revenue was fixed on the whole village (mahal), with the headman (lambardar) responsible. The revenue demand was high and periodically revised upward , and joint liability led to indebtedness and land loss.

Q53 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Which of the following Indian authors has been nominated multiple times for the Nobel Prize in Literature, though never awarded?

  1. Kamala Das
  2. Rabindranath Tagore
  3. R. K. Narayan
  4. Vikram Seth

Answer: C. R.K. Narayan ('Malgudi Days', 'The Guide' — Sahitya Akademi 1960) was nominated several times for the Nobel Prize in Literature but never won. Rabindranath Tagore won it in 1913 for 'Gitanjali', and remains the only Indian literature laureate.

Q54 · Art & Culture

Which of the following is the most distinctive feature of Dravida-style temples as compared to Nagara-style temples?

  1. Beehive-shaped shikhara
  2. Absence of mandapas
  3. Towering gopurams dominating the temple complex
  4. Use of red sandstone as the main construction material

Answer: C. Dravida temples (Tamil Nadu, e.g. Brihadeeswara, Meenakshi) have a pyramidal vimana over the sanctum, compound walls, and tall gateway towers (gopurams) , which in later temples dwarf the vimana. They also have water tanks. Nagara temples have a curvilinear (beehive) shikhara and usually no boundary walls or gopurams.

Q55 · Art & Culture

Which of the following best explains why early stupas lacked anthropomorphic depictions of the Buddha?

  1. Absence of skilled artisans during the Mauryan era
  2. Buddhist prohibition on image-making
  3. Prevalence of aniconic tradition in early Buddhism
  4. Preference for royal patronage over religious motifs

Answer: C. Early Buddhism (Sanchi, Bharhut, Amaravati, 2nd century BCE) followed an aniconic tradition. The Buddha was shown by symbols — the Bodhi tree (enlightenment), wheel (first sermon), stupa (parinirvana), footprints, the horse (renunciation) — out of reverence. Human images came later with the Gandhara and Mathura schools.

Q56 · Medieval History

Which architectural element introduced during Akbar’s reign most symbolically represented his policy of Sulh-i-Kul (universal tolerance)?

  1. Chhatri-covered tombs
  2. Double dome structure
  3. Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri
  4. Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri

Answer: D. The Ibadat Khana (1575, Fatehpur Sikri) was the hall where Akbar held inter-faith debates , which led to his policy of Sulh-i-Kul (peace with all). The Buland Darwaza (1575–76) commemorates his Gujarat victory.

Q57 · Art & Culture

Which of the following aspects most distinctly differentiates Manipuri Ras Leela from other classical Indian dance forms like Bharatanatyam and Kathak, in terms of philosophy, technique, and presentation style?

  1. Use of rapid footwork and intricate facial expressions to narrate mythological tales.
  2. Integration of martial elements like swordplay and acrobatics to depict stories from the Mahabharata.
  3. Emphasis on bhakti rasa (devotional mood) with minimal facial expressions, soft body movements, and circular patterns, focusing on the spiritual love of Radha and Krishna.
  4. Depiction of temple rituals through rigid geometric postures and vibrant facial expressions representing navarasas.

Answer: C. Manipuri dance (Ras Leela, from Rajarshi Bhagyachandra, 18th century) expresses bhakti rasa — devotion to Radha and Krishna — through soft, rounded, flowing movements , restrained facial expression, circular patterns and no ankle bells. Dancers wear the stiff cylindrical 'potloi' skirt. It contrasts with the sharp footwork of Kathak and Bharatanatyam.

Q58 · Art & Culture

Which of the following classical dance forms incorporates the use of Sanchari Bhavas and is heavily based on Abhinaya Darpana and Natya Shastra?

  1. Kathak
  2. Bharata Natyam
  3. Odissi
  4. Manipuri

Answer: B. Bharatanatyam draws heavily on the Natya Shastra (Bharata) and Abhinaya Darpana (Nandikeshvara). It uses sanchari bhavas — elaborations of different moods within one theme — in abhinaya pieces like varnam and padam. The repertoire (margam) runs alarippu → jatiswaram → shabdam → varnam → padam → tillana.

Q59 · Art & Culture

The Govardhan Puja, celebrated a day after Diwali, primarily commemorates which incident from Hindu mythology?

  1. Krishna defeating Kansa
  2. Krishna lifting the Govardhan hill
  3. Krishna’s Ras Lila
  4. Krishna stealing butter

Answer: B. Govardhan Puja (Annakut) , the day after Diwali, commemorates Krishna lifting Govardhan hill on his little finger to shelter the people of Braj from Indra's torrential rains. Devotees offer 'annakut' (a mountain of food). It is especially observed in Mathura–Vrindavan.

Q60 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

In the context of India’s commitment to multilingualism in education, which of the following statements best reflects the constitutional mandate, educational policy approach, and implementation challenges of promoting mother tongue-based instruction at the foundational level?

  1. The Constitution of India mandates compulsory education only in Hindi for all primary-level students, and the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 supports this by promoting Hindi as the sole medium of instruction
  2. Article 350A of the Constitution imposes an obligation on every State to provide facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage, but this is limited only to Scheduled Tribe children.
  3. The National Education Policy 2020 encourages mother tongue or regional language as the medium of instruction at least until Grade 5, preferably till Grade 8, for all children, aligning with Article 350A, though actual implementation faces linguistic diversity and resource constraints.
  4. Article 29 of the Constitution provides for the right to conserve one’s distinct language but does not recognize the use of any language other than English in educational institutions.

Answer: C. NEP 2020 recommends the mother tongue, home or regional language as the medium of instruction at least up to Class 5 , preferably up to Class 8, with the flexible three-language formula. Article 350A directs states to provide primary instruction in the mother tongue for linguistic minorities. Challenges: many languages in one classroom, teacher availability and textbooks.

Q61 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the policy rationale and implementation challenges associated with the identification and development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India?

  1. PVTGs are identified through periodic national censuses and their status is automatically revised every 10 years by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
  2. The PVTG classification applies only to tribes with no access to forest lands, and all PVTGs have now been settled through formal land titles under the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
  3. PVTGs are identified based on characteristics such as pre-agricultural level of technology, stagnant or declining population, low literacy, and economic backwardness; however, there is no mechanism under the Constitution for periodic review or addition of new PVTGs.
  4. All tribes classified as PVTGs have been granted Scheduled Tribe status in their respective states, and are uniformly eligible for the same central development schemes without variation.

Answer: C. PVTGs (the Dhebar Commission's 'primitive tribes', 1973; now 75 groups in 18 states plus A&N) are identified by pre-agricultural technology, stagnant or declining population, extremely low literacy, and a subsistence economy . Examples: Jarawa, Sentinelese, Onge, Baiga, Sahariya, Chenchu. PM-JANMAN (2023, ₹24,000 crore) targets their development.

Q62 · Polity & Governance

Which of the following best illustrates a controversial yet constitutionally upheld provision of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, that marks a significant shift from the earlier 2000 Act?

  1. The 2015 Act prohibits all forms of juvenile detention and mandates only rehabilitative care for all children below 18, regardless of offence
  2. The 2015 Act permits the trial of children aged 16-18 as adults for heinous offences, but only after a preliminary assessment by the Child Welfare Committee.
  3. The Act allows a child aged 16-18 accused of a heinous offence to be tried as an adult, subject to a preliminary assessment by the Juvenile Justice Board regarding the child's mental and physical capacity, understanding of consequences, and circumstances of the offence.
  4. The 2015 Act categorically treats all offences committed by juveniles as bailable and non-cognizable, regardless of the nature or severity.

Answer: C. The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 was passed after the Nirbhaya case. It allows a child aged 16–18 accused of a heinous offence (7+ years' imprisonment) to be tried as an adult after a preliminary assessment by the Juvenile Justice Board of mental and physical capacity. It also strengthened adoption rules (CARA). The JJ Amendment 2021 empowered District Magistrates.

Q63 · Geography

Which of the following statements most accurately explains the nature, dynamics, and regional implications of jet streams, particularly in the context of South Asian monsoon behavior and extreme weather events?

  1. Jet streams are permanent low-level winds flowing parallel to the equator, and their seasonal shift has no significant influence on Indian monsoon onset or withdrawal.
  2. The Tropical Easterly Jet (TEJ) and Subtropical Westerly Jet (STWJ) are upper tropospheric winds whose seasonal dominance over the Indian subcontinent strongly influences the monsoon cycle, with the STWJ facilitating active monsoon conditions.
  3. The Subtropical Westerly Jet retreats northward during summer, allowing the Tropical Easterly Jet to dominate, which aids monsoon onset, whereas the presence of STWJ over India during summer can suppress monsoon activity.
  4. Jet streams have no role in mid-latitude cyclones or upper-air divergence, and their impact is confined to aviation and turbulence rather than synoptic-scale weather systems.

Answer: C. Jet streams are fast upper-air winds (about 9–12 km up). In winter the Subtropical Westerly Jet lies south of the Himalayas and brings western disturbances. In summer it shifts north of Tibet, and the Tropical Easterly Jet forms over peninsular India, which helps the monsoon onset and its strength. The jet's behaviour also shapes heatwaves and extreme rain.

Q64 · Geography

Which phenomenon is most directly responsible for plate tectonics on Earth?

  1. Rotation of the Earth’s core
  2. Convection currents in the mantle
  3. Gravitational pull of the Moon
  4. Heat from the lithosphere

Answer: B. Convection currents in the mantle — heat rising from the core and radioactive decay — make the lithospheric plates move, aided by ridge push and slab pull. Arthur Holmes proposed mantle convection in the 1930s, and Hess's sea-floor spreading (1960s) supported it.

Q65 · Space, Science & Technology

Why is Skylab considered a pioneering milestone in the history of space stations, and what critical lessons did it offer for the development of long-duration space habitats?

  1. Skylab was the first international space station launched by NASA and ESA, equipped with artificial gravity and lunar landing capabilities.
  2. Skylab was the first modular space telescope in low Earth orbit used to detect dark matter and black holes using X-ray astronomy.
  3. Skylab was the United States’ first space station that demonstrated the feasibility of long-duration human presence in space and helped study the effects of microgravity on humans, despite suffering damage during launch.
  4. Skylab was a robotic Mars outpost that served as a base for interplanetary navigation and surface sample return missions.

Answer: C. Skylab (NASA, 1973–79) was the USA's first space station . Three crews stayed up to 84 days, proving humans can live and work in space for long periods. It carried out solar astronomy (the Apollo Telescope Mount) and medical studies, and showed the value of in-orbit repair and exercise. It re-entered in 1979 over Australia.

Q66 · Space, Science & Technology

Which unique scientific instrument aboard NASA's Juno spacecraft enables it to map Jupiter’s gravitational and magnetic fields with unprecedented precision to study the planet's interior structure?

  1. Jovian Infrared Auroral Mapper (JIRAM)
  2. Microwave Radiometer (MWR)
  3. Gravity Science Instrument
  4. Ultraviolet Imaging Spectrograph (UVS)

Answer: C. NASA's Juno (orbiting Jupiter since 2016) uses its Gravity Science experiment — radio Doppler tracking via the Ka/X-band transponder — to map Jupiter's gravity field and infer its interior, including a 'dilute' core. Its magnetometer maps the magnetic field, and JunoCam takes images.

Q67 · Space, Science & Technology

In the context of India’s development of Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) technology, which of the following statements best explains the long-term advantages and challenges associated with such systems in comparison to conventional expendable launch vehicles?

  1. RLVs eliminate the need for onboard cryogenic stages, making them more suitable for deep-space interplanetary missions.
  2. RLVs significantly reduce launch costs by enabling partial or full recovery and reuse of stages, but face challenges in thermal protection, hypersonic aerodynamics, and autonomous landing precision.
  3. RLVs use air-breathing propulsion systems for orbital injection, removing dependence on ground-based launch pads.
  4. Unlike expendable launch vehicles, RLVs require no telemetry tracking systems as they operate exclusively in suborbital trajectories.

Answer: B. Reusable launch vehicles cut costs by recovering and reflying stages or vehicles (like SpaceX's Falcon 9). ISRO's RLV-TD tested hypersonic flight (2016), and the autonomous landing experiments RLV-LEX-01/02/03 (2023–24, Chitradurga) succeeded. Challenges: thermal protection on re-entry, refurbishment costs and reliability. ISRO's NGLV is planned to be partly reusable.

Q68 · Physics

Which of the following best reflects the principle of conservation of linear momentum?

  1. In an isolated system, the total momentum before and after a collision remains constant, regardless of the internal forces.
  2. The total energy in an isolated system remains zero unless acted upon by external forces.
  3. Linear momentum can only be conserved in gravitational fields.
  4. Linear momentum applies only to subatomic particles in a magnetic field.

Answer: A. Conservation of linear momentum : if no external force acts on a system, its total momentum stays constant. Internal forces (collisions, explosions, recoil of a gun) cannot change it. It follows from Newton's second and third laws and explains rocket propulsion.

Q69 · Economy

What was the economic rationale behind India’s move to current account convertibility in 1994, and how did it impact India’s external sector and global integration?

  1. It allowed unrestricted capital inflows, including FDI and FPI, to finance domestic development
  2. It enabled full convertibility of the rupee for trade in goods, services, and remittances, thereby liberalizing the external sector without exposing the economy to volatile capital flows
  3. It permitted the RBI to fix the exchange rate of the rupee in line with the gold standard
  4. It reversed the liberalization process by restricting foreign exchange availability to public sector units only

Answer: B. Current account convertibility (August 1994, when India accepted IMF Article VIII) lets the rupee be freely exchanged for trade in goods and services, remittances and interest or dividend payments at market rates. It eased external transactions and boosted trade. Capital account convertibility is still only partial (Tarapore Committees).

Q70 · Economy

Which reform measure directly aimed to make Indian exports more competitive post-1991 ?

  1. Increased Minimum Support Prices (MSP)
  2. Convertibility on current account
  3. Corporate tax exemptions
  4. Crop insurance schemes

Answer: B. Making the rupee convertible on the current account (together with the 1991 devaluation and the move to a market exchange rate, LERMS 1992–93) let exporters use their foreign earnings freely and made Indian exports more competitive .

Q71 · Economy

In the context of the Mahalanobis strategy adopted in India’s Second Five Year Plan, why was the capital goods sector identified as the lead sector, and what economic trade-offs were implicit in this prioritization?

  1. Because it generated immediate consumer demand and high employment in the short term
  2. As it ensured surplus food production through mechanized farming
  3. Due to its ability to build internal capacity for self-sustaining industrial growth, despite the short-term sacrifice of consumption and employment
  4. Because it attracted high levels of foreign direct investment and export earnings

Answer: C. Mahalanobis argued that investing in capital goods (machines that make machines) would build lasting industrial capacity and faster long-run growth, making India self-reliant. The trade-off was less consumption now — fewer consumer goods, agriculture and jobs — for higher growth later.

Q72 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Which renowned Indian scientist was conferred the title ‘Father of India’s Green Revolution’ for introducing high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice, transforming India from a food-deficient to a self-sufficient nation?

  1. Norman Borlaug
  2. C. Subramaniam
  3. M.S. Swaminathan
  4. Verghese Kurien

Answer: C. Dr M.S. Swaminathan (1925–2023) led the adaptation of Norman Borlaug's semi-dwarf wheat and high-yielding rice varieties in India in the 1960s. He is the ' Father of the Green Revolution in India ', received the first World Food Prize (1987), was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna (2024) , and chaired the National Commission on Farmers. Norman Borlaug is the father of the global Green Revolution; Verghese Kurien led the White Revolution.

Q73 · Books, Awards & Personalities

Which modern Indian writer and Booker Prize winner authored The God of Small Things, a novel that broke conventional narrative and addressed caste, love, and politics with lyrical prose?

  1. Arundhati Roy
  2. Kiran Desai
  3. Jhumpa Lahiri
  4. D. Anita Desai

Answer: A. Arundhati Roy won the Booker Prize (1997) for 'The God of Small Things', the story of the twins Estha and Rahel in Ayemenem, Kerala, dealing with caste ('Love Laws') and family. Her second novel was 'The Ministry of Utmost Happiness' (2017).

Q74 · Sports

Which discipline saw female athletes surpass male athletes in medal count for the first time during the 2015 National Games?

  1. Archery
  2. Boxing
  3. Wrestling
  4. Shooting

Answer: D. As per the answer key, at the 35th National Games (2015, Kerala) , women shooters for the first time won more medals than men in shooting .

Q75 · Sports

While hockey is widely celebrated as India's unofficial national sport, what legal clarification did the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports issue regarding this status in 2020?

  1. Hockey remains the official national game since independence
  2. India has multiple national sports including kabaddi and kho-kho
  3. No sport has been officially designated as India’s national sport
  4. Cricket has overtaken hockey as the official national sport

Answer: C. In reply to an RTI query (2020), the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports clarified that India has not declared any sport as its 'national sport' or 'national game' . Hockey is widely believed to be the national game because of India's 8 Olympic golds, but it has no official status.

Q76 · Sports

Which Indian woman hockey player's journey from the rural Jharkhand village of Hesal to Tokyo 2020 became a symbol of resilience and national pride?

  1. Gurjit Kaur
  2. Vandana Katariya
  3. Salima Tete
  4. Rani Rampal

Answer: C. Salima Tete (from Badkichapar, Simdega, Jharkhand — a tribal village) played for India's women's hockey team, which finished a historic 4th at Tokyo 2020 . She later became India's captain (2024).

Q77 · Geography

The Indo-Gangetic Plains are formed by the alluvial deposits of three major river systems. Which of the following characteristics is NOT true for the Indo-Gangetic Plains?

  1. High fertility due to alluvium
  2. Subject to frequent floods
  3. Uneven terrain with many hills
  4. Dense population

Answer: C. The Indo-Gangetic–Brahmaputra plains are among the world's largest alluvial plains. They are flat and featureless , very fertile, densely populated and flood-prone. Divisions: bhabar, terai, bhangar (old alluvium) and khadar (new alluvium). 'Uneven terrain with many hills' is therefore NOT true.

Q78 · Economy

India's Dependency Ratio is a critical measure of economic burden. In demographic terms, which age groups are considered “dependent” in calculating this ratio?

  1. 0-14 and 60+
  2. 0-14 and 65+
  3. 0-17 and 60+
  4. 0-14 and 55+

Answer: B. Dependency ratio = (population aged 0–14 + 65 and above ) ÷ (population aged 15–64) × 100. India's is about 47–48 and falling, which is the basis of its demographic dividend. It will later rise as the population ages.

Q79 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

The Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is widely cited in governance discourse. How does India's position on this index affect its foreign investment potential?

  1. Negatively, as it signals high regulatory risk and lack of institutional transparency
  2. Positively, due to high public sector employment
  3. Negligibly, since foreign firms ignore such reports
  4. Only in defense contracts

Answer: A. Transparency International's Corruption Perceptions Index ranked India 96th of 180 in the CPI 2024 (score 38). A low score signals governance and regulatory risk and weak institutional transparency, which can raise the risk premium and discourage foreign investors.

Q80 · Space, Science & Technology

On 30th January 2025, Sunita Williams broke the spacewalking record among women astronauts. Whose record did she surpass?

  1. Christina Koch
  2. Peggy Whitson
  3. Jessica Meir
  4. Jeanette Epps

Answer: B. On 30 January 2025, during her extended ISS stay (the Boeing Starliner problem), Sunita Williams reached about 62 hours 6 minutes of total spacewalk time across 9 EVAs. She passed Peggy Whitson's 60 h 21 min to hold the women's record. She returned on SpaceX Crew-9 in March 2025.

Q81 · Geography

What primarily influenced the formation of India’s drainage system?

  1. Only tectonic plate collisions
  2. Climatic zones and forest cover
  3. Physiographic evolution and rainfall patterns
  4. Man-made canals and irrigation plans

Answer: C. India's drainage pattern reflects its physiography and geological history — the Himalayan uplift, the tilt of the peninsular block, the Western Ghats as water divide — together with the monsoon rainfall regime . Rivers draining east (to the Bay of Bengal) far outnumber those draining west (Narmada and Tapi flow west through rift valleys).

Q82 · Books, Awards & Personalities

What is the highest literary award in India for lifetime achievement?

  1. Jnanpith Award
  2. Sahitya Akademi Award
  3. Man Booker Prize
  4. Saraswati Samman

Answer: A. The Jnanpith Award (from 1965, by the Bharatiya Jnanpith trust) is India's highest literary honour , given to an author for outstanding overall contribution in any Eighth Schedule language (or English). The first winner was G. Sankara Kurup (Malayalam). The 2023 awards (announced 2024) went to Gulzar and Jagadguru Rambhadracharya.

Q83 · Geography

Which planet is closest to the Sun?

  1. Venus
  2. Earth
  3. Mercury
  4. Mars

Answer: C. Mercury is the closest planet to the Sun and the smallest planet. It has no moons and the shortest year (88 days). Venus is the hottest planet (greenhouse effect). The order is Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.

Q84 · Environment & Ecology

What is a key focus of the Draft Solid Waste Management Rules, 2024, compared to the 2016 rules?

  1. Limiting regulations to urban areas
  2. Circular economy and advanced recycling
  3. Abolishing penalties
  4. Ignoring e-waste

Answer: B. The draft Solid Waste Management Rules, 2024 (to replace the 2016 rules) stress a circular economy : four-way segregation at source, Extended Producer Responsibility, polluter-pays charges, and higher recycling and recovery targets. They extend the principles already applied in the plastic, e-waste and battery rules.

Q85 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

The World Happiness Report 2025 highlights India’s happiness rank dropped compared to 2015 despite:

  1. GDP doubling
  2. Improved AQI
  3. Higher literacy
  4. Falling life expectancy

Answer: A. India ranked 118th in the World Happiness Report 2025, lower than its 2015 rank (117th) , even though its GDP roughly doubled over the decade. This is often cited to show that economic growth alone does not raise reported well-being (social support, freedom and corruption perceptions matter).

Q86 · Art & Culture

What innovation did Rajput fort architecture introduce to withstand siege warfare?

  1. Stepwells for sustained water supply
  2. Glass domes
  3. Mechanical drawbridges
  4. Collapsible gates

Answer: A. Rajput forts (Chittorgarh, Kumbhalgarh, Amber, Jaisalmer, Mehrangarh) had huge walls, multiple gates (pols) and hilltop sites. To survive long sieges they built stepwells (baoris) and water tanks inside the ramparts, e.g. the reservoirs of Chittorgarh.

Q87 · Physics

Which instrument measures atmospheric pressure?

  1. Barometer
  2. Thermometer
  3. Ammeter
  4. Hygrometer

Answer: A. A barometer measures atmospheric pressure . The mercury barometer was invented by Torricelli (1643); standard pressure is 760 mm Hg. A thermometer measures temperature, an ammeter electric current, and a hygrometer humidity.

Q88 · Modern History

The Charter Act of 1813 ended whose monopoly over trade in India?

  1. Dutch East India Company
  2. Indian merchants
  3. British East India Company (except tea/China trade)
  4. French East India Company

Answer: C. The Charter Act 1813 ended the East India Company's monopoly on trade with India , except for tea and trade with China, and opened it to all British merchants. The Charter Act 1833 ended the remaining monopolies, and the Company became a purely administrative body.

Q89 · Art & Culture

Which Indian festival is famous for vibrant colours and water fights in the spring?

  1. Baisakhi
  2. Diwali
  3. Holi
  4. Janmashtami

Answer: C. Holi , the festival of colours, is celebrated on Phalguna Purnima (March). Holika Dahan the night before commemorates Prahlad's escape and Holika's burning. Lathmar Holi (Barsana), Phaguwa and Dol Jatra/Basanta Utsav (Bengal) are regional forms.

Q90 · Art & Culture

The ‘Hornbill Festival', known as the "Festival of Festivals" and uniting Naga tribes, is held in:

  1. Assam
  2. Nagaland
  3. Manipur
  4. Sikkim

Answer: B. The Hornbill Festival (1–10 December, from 2000) is held at Kisama Heritage Village near Kohima, Nagaland . It showcases the traditions of all 16+ Naga tribes and coincides with Nagaland Statehood Day (1 December).

Q91 · Geography

What is the estimated percentage of people in India aged 65 and above in 2025?

  1. 3%
  2. 5%
  3. 7%
  4. 15%

Answer: C. About 7% of India's population is 65+ (UNFPA 2025). About 10–11% is 60+, and this is expected to double by 2050. This drives the need for pension and elderly-care policies (the 'India Ageing Report 2023').

Q92 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Which country ranked 3rd in the World Press Freedom Index 2026?

  1. Denmark
  2. Estonia
  3. Finland
  4. Sweden

Answer: B. As per the answer key, Estonia ranked 3rd in RSF's World Press Freedom Index 2026 . (Norway 1st.) Estonia has been in the top five in recent editions.

Q93 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

Who assumed charge as the Chairman and Managing Director of Steel Authority of India Limited in May 2026?

  1. Alok Verma
  2. Amarendu Prakash
  3. Ashok Kumar Panda
  4. Krishna Kumar Singh

Answer: C. As per the answer key, Ashok Kumar Panda took charge as Chairman and Managing Director of SAIL in May 2026. SAIL is a Maharatna PSU under the Ministry of Steel, with integrated plants at Bhilai, Bokaro, Rourkela, Durgapur and Burnpur.

Q94 · Current Affairs, Schemes & Indices

In May 2026, Prasoon Joshi was appointed as the Chairman of which organization?

  1. Central Board of Film Certification
  2. National Trust
  3. Prasar Bharati
  4. Sahitya Academy

Answer: C. As per the answer key, lyricist and adman Prasoon Joshi (CBFC Chairperson since 2017) was appointed Chairman of Prasar Bharati in May 2026. Prasar Bharati is the statutory public broadcaster (DD and AIR) under the Prasar Bharati Act, 1990.

Q95 · Ancient History

Which phase of the Palaeolithic period is characterized by the dominance of 'flake tools'?

  1. Lower Palaeolithic
  2. Neolithic
  3. Upper Palaeolithic
  4. Middle Palaeolithic

Answer: D. The Middle Palaeolithic (about 1,50,000–40,000 years ago) is marked by flake tools — scrapers, borers, points — made by the Levallois technique. Lower Palaeolithic: handaxes and cleavers (Acheulean, e.g. Attirampakkam). Upper Palaeolithic: blades and burins, and the first cave art.

Q96 · Ancient History

What were the primary tools used during the Upper Palaeolithic period?

  1. Wooden spears
  2. Handaxes and cleavers
  3. Burins and scrapers
  4. Chopping tools

Answer: C. Upper Palaeolithic tools (about 40,000–10,000 years ago) were blades and burins (chisel-like tools) and scrapers , associated with Homo sapiens. Bone tools appear at Kurnool caves (AP), and ostrich-egg shells at Patne (Maharashtra). Bhimbetka's earliest paintings date from this period.

Q97 · Ancient History

Which Neolithic site is located in Jammu and Kashmir?

  1. Maski
  2. Gufkral
  3. Bhimbetka
  4. Mahagara

Answer: B. Gufkral ('cave of the potter') and Burzahom are Neolithic sites in Kashmir , known for pit dwellings and, at Burzahom, dogs buried with humans. Other Neolithic sites: Maski (Karnataka, where an Ashokan edict also names 'Devanampiya Asoka'), Mahagara (UP). Bhimbetka is a Palaeolithic–Mesolithic rock-shelter site.

Q98 · Art & Culture

In Manipuri dance traditions, consider the following statements and choose the correct option: 1. Samkirtana is one of the main styles of Manipuri dance. 2. Rasalila is not a part of Manipuri dance traditions.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: A. Sankirtana (UNESCO 2013) is a major Manipuri performance tradition, so statement 1 is correct. Ras Leela is the heart of Manipuri dance (Maha Ras, Vasant Ras, Kunja Ras), so statement 2 is wrong.

Q99 · Economy

The Five-Year Plans of India were adopted from which nation?

  1. France
  2. Great Britain
  3. The former Soviet Union
  4. The United States of America

Answer: C. India's Five-Year Plans were inspired by the former Soviet Union's centralised planning (first Soviet plan 1928). The First Plan (1951) was drafted under Nehru. Other early ideas were the Bombay Plan (1944), the Gandhian Plan and the People's Plan (M.N. Roy).

Q100 · Sports

Where were the Asian Weightlifting Championships 2026 held?

  1. Hyderabad
  2. Gandhinagar
  3. New Delhi
  4. Ahmedabad

Answer: B. As per the answer key, the Asian Weightlifting Championships 2026 were held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat . Mirabai Chanu (Tokyo 2020 silver, 49 kg) leads Indian weightlifting.